BAS Treatment Approaches and Interventions 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: During a supervision session, a supervisee asks why Differential Reinforcement of Alternative Behavior (DRA) is preferred over DRO for most clinical cases. The best answer is that DRA:
- Eliminates the need to identify the function of the problem behavior
- Builds a specific adaptive replacement skill in addition to reducing problem behavior (Correct answer)
- Requires shorter intervals and therefore produces faster reduction in problem behavior
- Can be implemented without delivering any reinforcement to the client
Correct answer: Builds a specific adaptive replacement skill in addition to reducing problem behavior
DRA is preferred because it simultaneously reduces problem behavior and teaches a functionally equivalent or adaptive replacement skill.
Question 2: A client's escape-maintained problem behavior is being treated with Noncontingent Reinforcement (NCR) using escape on a fixed-time (FT) schedule. The supervisor should caution staff about which primary risk?
- NCR on FT schedules accidentally reinforces problem behavior when the schedule and behavior coincide (Correct answer)
- NCR eliminates the establishing operation by providing escape too frequently, causing satiation
- FT schedules are more difficult for staff to implement than variable-time schedules
- NCR cannot be used for escape-maintained behavior and is contraindicated by BACB guidelines
Correct answer: NCR on FT schedules accidentally reinforces problem behavior when the schedule and behavior coincide
With FT schedules, reinforcer delivery can accidentally coincide with problem behavior, inadvertently strengthening it through adventitious reinforcement.
Question 3: A supervisor is training staff on Pivotal Response Treatment (PRT). Which behavior is considered a 'pivotal' target because improving it produces collateral improvements across many other untargeted behaviors?
- Rote memorization of academic facts
- Motivation and child-initiated interactions (Correct answer)
- Accurate echoic responding to multi-syllabic words
- Compliance with adult-directed discrete trial procedures
Correct answer: Motivation and child-initiated interactions
PRT targets pivotal areas like motivation and self-initiations because gains in these areas produce widespread collateral improvements across development.
Question 4: When conducting a preference assessment to identify reinforcers for a new treatment plan, which type provides the most direct, ecologically valid information about relative reinforcer value?
- Indirect assessment using caregiver interviews and rating scales
- Single-stimulus (successive) preference assessment with teacher ratings
- Multiple-stimulus without replacement (MSWO) free-operant preference assessment (Correct answer)
- Reinforcer survey completed by the client using pictures of preferred items
Correct answer: Multiple-stimulus without replacement (MSWO) free-operant preference assessment
MSWO assessments allow direct comparison of item preference under controlled conditions, yielding a ranked hierarchy that best predicts reinforcer efficacy.
Question 5: A supervisor is shaping a new vocal topography in a client with limited verbal behavior. The supervisee inadvertently jumps several steps forward in the shaping program. What is the most likely consequence?
- The behavior will be acquired faster because the terminal criterion is introduced sooner
- Responding may extinguish because the new criterion is too far from the current repertoire to contact reinforcement (Correct answer)
- Shaping cannot produce problem behaviors, so there is no clinical concern
- The client's motivation will increase because the challenge level has risen
Correct answer: Responding may extinguish because the new criterion is too far from the current repertoire to contact reinforcement
Skipping shaping steps means the client cannot emit the response required for reinforcement, causing extinction and possible behavioral breakdown.
Question 6: A BAS is reviewing a social skills intervention for an adolescent using Video Modeling (VM). Which research-supported advantage of VM makes it particularly effective for this population?
- VM eliminates the need for generalization programming because it is naturalistic
- VM allows learners to observe the complete behavior chain at their own pace before performing it (Correct answer)
- VM is the only evidence-based intervention for social skills recognized by the BACB
- VM does not require a reinforcement component because observational learning is intrinsically motivating
Correct answer: VM allows learners to observe the complete behavior chain at their own pace before performing it
Video modeling allows observers to view an entire behavioral sequence, supports self-paced review, and can incorporate perspective-taking models.
Question 7: A supervisee asks about the difference between Stimulus Fading and Stimulus Shaping when transferring stimulus control. The supervisor's most accurate explanation is that:
- Stimulus fading changes the topography of the SD while stimulus shaping changes its physical dimensions
- Stimulus fading gradually changes the physical properties of the SD, while stimulus shaping gradually changes its form or configuration (Correct answer)
- Stimulus fading is used only for visual stimuli, while stimulus shaping is used only for auditory stimuli
- Stimulus fading is a punishment procedure and stimulus shaping is a reinforcement procedure
Correct answer: Stimulus fading gradually changes the physical properties of the SD, while stimulus shaping gradually changes its form or configuration
Stimulus fading alters dimensions like intensity or color, while stimulus shaping changes the physical configuration or form of the stimulus itself.
BAS Treatment Approaches and Interventions 3
During a supervision session, a supervisee asks why Differential Reinforcement of Alternative Behavior (DRA) is preferred over DRO for most clinical cases.
The best answer is that DRA: