BAPSY (Bachelor of Arts in Psychology) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: In the context of aging, 'terminal decline' refers to:

Age-related hearing and vision loss that begins in late adulthood
The total cessation of cognitive functioning at the moment of death
A gradual, steady decline in cognitive function beginning in one's 50s
A sharp acceleration of cognitive decline in the years immediately preceding death (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A sharp acceleration of cognitive decline in the years immediately preceding death

Terminal decline (or terminal drop) is a pronounced, rapid decrease in cognitive performance detected approximately 1–5 years before death.

Question 2: In the context of this study, what is the measured or observed variable that is influenced or affected by the changes in the independent variable? (Dependent variable)

the number of correctly recalled words (Correct answer)
digit recitation
the participant identification letter
the word list given

Correct answer: the number of correctly recalled words

The dependent variable is the outcome measure that is expected to change in response to the manipulation of the independent variable. In this study, 'the number of correctly recalled words' is the dependent variable. Researchers would measure how changes in 'digit recitation' (the independent variable) affect participants' ability to recall words, thus assessing the effect of the manipulation.

Question 3: Which personality assessment uses ambiguous inkblot images to reveal unconscious thoughts and feelings?

Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Rorschach Inkblot Test (Correct answer)
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

Correct answer: Rorschach Inkblot Test

The Rorschach Inkblot Test presents symmetrical inkblot images as projective stimuli to assess unconscious personality processes.

Question 4: Which measure of central tendency is most appropriate for highly skewed income data?

Mean
Standard deviation
Median (Correct answer)
Mode

Correct answer: Median

The median is resistant to extreme values and best represents the center of skewed distributions.

Question 5: A person hiking in the woods suddenly encounters a bear. Their heart begins to race, their breathing becomes rapid, and their pupils dilate. This physiological arousal is primarily driven by the activation of which part of the nervous system?

Sympathetic nervous system (Correct answer)
Parasympathetic nervous system
Central nervous system
Somatic nervous system

Correct answer: Sympathetic nervous system

The sympathetic nervous system is the division of the autonomic nervous system responsible for the body's 'fight-or-flight' response. It mobilizes energy and prepares the body for action in response to a perceived threat, causing increased heart rate, rapid breathing, and pupil dilation.

Question 6: What type of therapy uses systematic desensitization to treat phobias?

Humanistic therapy
Psychoanalytic therapy
Existential therapy
Behavioral therapy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Behavioral therapy

Systematic desensitization is a behavioral technique that pairs gradual exposure to a feared stimulus with relaxation to reduce anxiety.

Question 7: Which DSM-5 criterion distinguishes Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) from Major Depressive Disorder?

Number of somatic symptoms
Presence of suicidal ideation
Duration of at least 2 years of depressed mood (Correct answer)
Age of onset before 18

Correct answer: Duration of at least 2 years of depressed mood

Persistent Depressive Disorder requires depressed mood for at least 2 years in adults, whereas MDD is defined by discrete episodes.

Question 8: What phenomenon describes the measurable decline in processing speed and fluid intelligence that typically begins in the late twenties?

Crystallized intelligence loss
Cognitive reserve depletion
Normative age-graded decline (Correct answer)
Terminal drop

Correct answer: Normative age-graded decline

Normative age-graded decline refers to the predictable, biologically driven decreases in fluid cognitive abilities that are common across individuals as they age.

Question 9: A researcher wants to investigate if a new type of cognitive therapy improves symptoms of depression. One group of patients receives the new therapy, while another group receives the standard therapy. The researcher measures depression levels before and after the eight-week treatment period. In this study, what is the independent variable?

The patients' depression levels at the end of the study.
The improvement in depression symptoms.
The type of therapy received (new vs. standard). (Correct answer)
The duration of the treatment period (eight weeks).

Correct answer: The type of therapy received (new vs. standard).

The independent variable is the factor that the researcher manipulates or changes to observe its effect on another variable. In this scenario, the researcher is directly controlling which type of therapy the participants receive, making it the cause being investigated.

Question 10: Motivational Interviewing (MI) is particularly useful in mental health rehabilitation for addressing:

Psychotic symptoms through cognitive restructuring
Crisis intervention and de-escalation
Neurobiological causes of mood disorders
Ambivalence about treatment engagement and behavior change (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ambivalence about treatment engagement and behavior change

MI uses reflective listening, affirmation, and change talk to resolve ambivalence and strengthen intrinsic motivation to change.

Question 11: Research on pheromones in humans suggests that:

Pheromone receptors in humans are located in the primary olfactory cortex
Human pheromones reliably trigger species-wide, stereotyped mating behaviors
Humans have fully functional vomeronasal organs that detect mate-quality signals
Evidence for pheromone-mediated behavioral effects in humans is limited and debated (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Evidence for pheromone-mediated behavioral effects in humans is limited and debated

While some studies suggest human body odors influence attraction and immune compatibility preferences, robust evidence for classic pheromone effects on behavior in humans is lacking.

Question 12: What phenomenon occurs when previously learned information interferes with the ability to remember new information?

Motivated forgetting
Retroactive interference
Proactive interference (Correct answer)
Decay theory

Correct answer: Proactive interference

Proactive interference occurs when older memories disrupt the retrieval of newer memories, such as calling a new partner by an ex's name.

Question 13: The concept of 'pluralistic ignorance' helps explain bystander inaction because onlookers:

Each privately interpret the event as an emergency but publicly act calm, misleading one another (Correct answer)
Are collectively unaware of what the appropriate response should be
Assume emergency services have already been called
Are unaware that anyone else has noticed the emergency

Correct answer: Each privately interpret the event as an emergency but publicly act calm, misleading one another

Pluralistic ignorance occurs when individuals privately hold one belief but assume others feel differently, leading the group to publicly model calm non-response even in genuine emergencies.

Question 14: Which approach to defining abnormality uses statistical rarity as the primary criterion, classifying behaviors that deviate significantly from the average as disordered?

Statistical infrequency model (Correct answer)
Biological model
Social norms model
Harmful dysfunction model

Correct answer: Statistical infrequency model

The statistical infrequency model defines abnormality as any behavior that is statistically rare compared to the general population, though this approach has limitations (e.g., high IQ is also rare but not disordered).

Question 15: Which of the following best describes 'depersonalization' as a symptom?

Believing one's thoughts are being broadcast aloud
Forgetting one's personal identity entirely
Feeling detached from one's own mental processes or body (Correct answer)
Seeing objects as larger than they actually are

Correct answer: Feeling detached from one's own mental processes or body

Depersonalization involves a sense of unreality or detachment from oneself, as if observing oneself from outside.

Question 16: In group therapy, 'universality' as a therapeutic factor refers to:

Clients discovering that others share similar problems (Correct answer)
Applying universal ethical standards to all group members
Learning skills that apply in all life situations
The therapist treating all group members equally

Correct answer: Clients discovering that others share similar problems

Yalom identified universality as the relief clients feel when they discover their struggles are not unique to them.

Question 17: What is the primary purpose of a strengths-based approach in mental health rehabilitation?

Applying standardized treatment protocols to all clients
Identifying and building upon a client's existing capabilities and resources (Correct answer)
Focusing exclusively on symptom reduction
Determining the severity of a client's diagnosis

Correct answer: Identifying and building upon a client's existing capabilities and resources

A strengths-based approach emphasizes leveraging a client's inherent abilities, talents, and support systems to promote recovery and resilience.

Question 18: Which of the following is an example of a confounding variable?

A mediating variable in a causal chain
A variable that co-varies with IV and affects DV unintentionally (Correct answer)
The measured outcome in an experiment
A manipulated independent variable

Correct answer: A variable that co-varies with IV and affects DV unintentionally

A confound is an extraneous variable that varies systematically with the independent variable and influences the dependent variable.

Question 19: What role does an amicus curiae psychologist serve in a court proceeding?

They provide expert information to assist the court as a 'friend of the court' (Correct answer)
They act as a juror with specialized knowledge
They serve as the defendant's treating therapist
They represent the prosecution's psychological interests

Correct answer: They provide expert information to assist the court as a 'friend of the court'

An amicus curiae psychologist submits expert information or briefs to help the court understand psychological issues relevant to the case without representing either party.

Question 20: Alfred Adler's individual psychology emphasizes which motivating force as central to personality development?

Classical conditioning patterns
Sexual energy (libido)
Striving for superiority and overcoming inferiority (Correct answer)
Unconditional positive regard

Correct answer: Striving for superiority and overcoming inferiority

Adler believed the primary motivating force in personality is the striving for superiority—compensating for feelings of inferiority to achieve personal goals.

Question 21: What term describes the tendency for early life experiences to have diminishing effects on development as later experiences accumulate?

Canalization
Resilience
Critical period hypothesis
Developmental plasticity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Developmental plasticity

Developmental plasticity refers to the brain and behavior's capacity to be shaped by experience throughout life, meaning early effects can be modified by later ones.

Question 22: In Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT), the term 'dialectical' refers to the balance between which two concepts?

Thinking and feeling
Past and present
Acceptance and change (Correct answer)
Individual and group

Correct answer: Acceptance and change

DBT's dialectical philosophy synthesizes acceptance of the client as they are with the need for change.

Question 23: Philip Zimbardo's Stanford Prison Experiment is primarily cited as evidence for the power of:

Individual personality traits over situational roles
Situational roles and institutional structures over individual behavior (Correct answer)
Bystander apathy in controlled settings
Random assignment in psychological research

Correct answer: Situational roles and institutional structures over individual behavior

The experiment showed that ordinary people assigned to prison roles rapidly adopted extreme behaviors consistent with those roles, demonstrating situational power.

Question 24: Is Dianne classified as having above-average mental ability, even though her academic performance suffers due to poor motivation in class and resulting in low grades?

Under-achiever (Correct answer)
Over-achiever
Slow learner
Superior

Correct answer: Under-achiever

An under-achiever is defined as an individual who possesses above-average mental ability or potential but performs below their expected academic level. Dianne's situation, where she has above-average mental ability but achieves low grades due to poor motivation, perfectly aligns with the characteristics of an under-achiever. Her potential is not being fully realized in her academic performance.

Question 25: The 'just-world hypothesis' refers to the belief that:

Justice systems are biased toward the powerful
People get what they deserve and deserve what they get (Correct answer)
Good deeds are always rewarded eventually
The world is fundamentally unfair to marginalized groups

Correct answer: People get what they deserve and deserve what they get

The just-world hypothesis leads people to blame victims for their misfortune as a way of maintaining the belief that the world is fair.

Question 26: What does the concept of 'scaffolding' in Vygotsky's theory refer to?

Reinforcement schedules that shape behavior
A child's innate ability to acquire language
Temporary support provided by a more skilled person to help a learner master a task (Correct answer)
The biological maturation of cognitive structures

Correct answer: Temporary support provided by a more skilled person to help a learner master a task

Scaffolding involves adjustable support from a knowledgeable other that is gradually withdrawn as the learner gains competence within the zone of proximal development.

Question 27: What does the term 'dual diagnosis' refer to in mental health rehabilitation?

Two therapists treating the same patient
A diagnosis confirmed by two separate clinicians
A patient receiving both medication and therapy
The co-occurrence of a mental health disorder and a substance use disorder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The co-occurrence of a mental health disorder and a substance use disorder

Dual diagnosis refers to the simultaneous presence of both a mental health condition and a substance use disorder, requiring integrated treatment approaches.

Question 28: Substance use disorder is diagnosed in DSM-5 using a dimensional approach based on how many criteria are met. A 'severe' diagnosis requires at least:

2 criteria
4 criteria
8 criteria
6 criteria (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 6 criteria

DSM-5 rates severity as mild (2–3 criteria), moderate (4–5 criteria), or severe (6 or more of 11 possible criteria).

Question 29: Which persuasion technique involves making a large request first, expecting refusal, then following with a smaller target request?

Door-in-the-face technique (Correct answer)
Foot-in-the-door technique
That's-not-all technique
Low-ball technique

Correct answer: Door-in-the-face technique

The door-in-the-face technique leverages the norm of reciprocity, making the smaller second request seem more reasonable by contrast with the initial large request.

Question 30: Under the Tarasoff duty, a therapist is legally required to take action when:

A client refuses to take prescribed medication
A client expresses general dissatisfaction with others
A client has a history of past violence only
A client makes a credible threat against an identifiable third party (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A client makes a credible threat against an identifiable third party

Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California established the duty to protect an identifiable potential victim when a client poses a serious and credible threat.

Question 31: Which anxiety disorder is characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks accompanied by persistent concern about future attacks?

Generalized anxiety disorder
Social anxiety disorder
Agoraphobia
Panic disorder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Panic disorder

Panic disorder involves recurrent unexpected panic attacks plus at least one month of anticipatory anxiety or behavioral changes related to the attacks.

Question 32: According to dual-process theory, System 1 thinking is best characterized as which of the following?

Conscious, effortful, and logical
Sequential, methodical, and rule-based
Fast, automatic, and intuitive (Correct answer)
Slow, deliberate, and analytical

Correct answer: Fast, automatic, and intuitive

System 1 in dual-process theory operates quickly and automatically with little effort or sense of voluntary control.

Question 33: The concept of 'self-efficacy,' developed by Albert Bandura, refers to:

Awareness of one's emotional states
One's overall self-esteem and sense of worth
Belief in one's ability to succeed in specific situations (Correct answer)
The degree to which behavior is intrinsically motivated

Correct answer: Belief in one's ability to succeed in specific situations

Self-efficacy is an individual's belief in their capacity to execute behaviors necessary to produce specific outcomes in a particular context.

Question 34: Psychoeducation for families of individuals with schizophrenia is primarily aimed at:

Blaming family dynamics as the cause of the illness
Eliminating the need for antipsychotic medication
Reducing expressed emotion and improving family coping skills (Correct answer)
Encouraging family members to become professional caregivers

Correct answer: Reducing expressed emotion and improving family coping skills

Family psychoeducation reduces high expressed emotion—criticism, hostility, and overinvolvement—which is associated with higher relapse rates in schizophrenia.

Question 35: Which neurodevelopmental disorder is characterized by persistent deficits in social communication and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior?

Intellectual disability
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
Specific learning disorder
Autism spectrum disorder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Autism spectrum disorder

Autism spectrum disorder is defined by challenges in social interaction and communication along with restricted interests and repetitive behaviors.

Question 36: A patient with damage to Wernicke's area would most likely exhibit which symptom?

Impaired visual processing
Loss of motor coordination
Difficulty comprehending spoken language (Correct answer)
Inability to produce fluent speech

Correct answer: Difficulty comprehending spoken language

Wernicke's area in the left temporal lobe is responsible for language comprehension, so damage leads to receptive aphasia.

Question 37: Which of the following neurotransmitters is most commonly associated with the regulation of mood, sleep, and appetite, with low levels being a significant factor in depressive disorders?

Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Serotonin (Correct answer)
GABA

Correct answer: Serotonin

Serotonin (5-HT) is a key monoamine neurotransmitter involved in a wide range of psychological functions, including mood, sleep, and appetite regulation. Its role in mood is particularly well-known, and low levels in the brain are thought to contribute to depression. Many antidepressant medications (like SSRIs) work by increasing serotonin's availability.

Question 38: Which sampling method divides the population into subgroups and randomly samples from each in proportion to their size?

Stratified random sampling (Correct answer)
Convenience sampling
Systematic sampling
Cluster sampling

Correct answer: Stratified random sampling

Stratified random sampling ensures proportional representation of subgroups by randomly selecting from each stratum.

Question 39: Which of the following physiological responses is mediated by the activation of the sympathetic nervous system?

Dilation of pupils (Correct answer)
Stimulation of digestion
Constriction of bronchi
Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: Dilation of pupils

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the "fight-or-flight" response, preparing the body for immediate action. This includes dilating the pupils to allow more light to enter the eye, increasing heart rate, and inhibiting non-essential functions like digestion. The other options are characteristic of the parasympathetic ("rest-and-digest") system.

Question 40: What is the theory that centers around observable behaviors and suggests that people learn new behaviors through external reinforcement or punishment, as well as by observing and imitating social factors in their environment?

Social learning theory (Correct answer)
Maslow's hierarchy of needs
Operant conditioning
Cognitive dissonance theory

Correct answer: Social learning theory

Social learning theory, primarily developed by Albert Bandura, emphasizes that learning occurs not only through direct experience with reinforcement and punishment but also through observing others. This theory highlights the importance of modeling, imitation, and cognitive processes in acquiring new behaviors, attitudes, and emotional reactions by watching social interactions and their consequences. It bridges the gap between behaviorist and cognitive theories.

Question 41: During an action potential, what happens during the depolarization phase?

Sodium ions rush into the neuron, making the interior more positive (Correct answer)
Chloride ions enter through voltage-gated channels
Potassium ions flow out of the neuron rapidly
The neuron returns to its resting potential

Correct answer: Sodium ions rush into the neuron, making the interior more positive

Depolarization occurs when voltage-gated sodium channels open, allowing Na+ to flow inward and reversing the membrane's charge.

Question 42: Carl Rogers' humanistic theory placed which concept at the center of personality development?

Collective unconscious
Operant conditioning
Self-concept (Correct answer)
Archetypes

Correct answer: Self-concept

Rogers argued that self-concept—how we perceive ourselves—is central to personality and that congruence between self-concept and experience promotes well-being.

Question 43: A psychologist develops a new questionnaire to measure anxiety. To ensure the questionnaire accurately measures the concept of anxiety and not some other related concept like stress, the psychologist must establish strong:

External validity
Test-retest reliability
Internal validity
Construct validity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Construct validity

Construct validity refers to how well a test or tool measures the specific concept or construct it was designed to measure. In this case, the psychologist needs to provide evidence that the questionnaire truly assesses anxiety. Internal validity relates to causality in experiments, and external validity relates to generalizability.

Question 44: Damage to the amygdala most consistently impairs which psychological function?

Fear conditioning and threat detection (Correct answer)
Spatial navigation
Language comprehension
Fine motor coordination

Correct answer: Fear conditioning and threat detection

The amygdala is critical for acquiring and expressing conditioned fear responses, as demonstrated by the famous case of patient S.M.

Question 45: The trait approach to personality assumes that personality traits are:

Temporary states that are highly situation-specific
Only measurable through projective assessment tools
Completely determined by environmental rewards
Relatively stable and consistent dispositions across situations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Relatively stable and consistent dispositions across situations

The trait approach holds that personality consists of stable, enduring dispositions that consistently influence behavior across diverse situations.

Question 46: Which concept describes a child's understanding that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen?

Egocentrism
Object permanence (Correct answer)
Centration
Conservation

Correct answer: Object permanence

Object permanence, typically achieved around 8–12 months, is the understanding that objects persist even when out of sight.

Question 47: Damage to the Broca's area in the left frontal lobe typically results in:

Difficulty producing fluent speech (Correct answer)
Loss of long-term memory formation
Visual agnosia and object recognition failure
Inability to comprehend spoken language

Correct answer: Difficulty producing fluent speech

Broca's area is critical for speech production; damage causes Broca's aphasia, characterized by slow, effortful, non-fluent speech.

Question 48: Which concept refers to the biological unfolding of development according to a genetic blueprint, largely independent of environmental influence?

Accommodation
Maturation (Correct answer)
Habituation
Scaffolding

Correct answer: Maturation

Maturation describes the natural, genetically programmed sequence of physical and behavioral changes that occur with age regardless of specific environmental input.

Question 49: Which phenomenon describes the tendency to search for or interpret information in ways that confirm pre-existing beliefs?

Dunning-Kruger effect
Hindsight bias
Confirmation bias (Correct answer)
Illusory correlation

Correct answer: Confirmation bias

Confirmation bias is the tendency to favor information that supports one's existing beliefs while ignoring or discounting contradictory evidence.

Question 50: Which of the following is NOT one of the core features required for a PTSD diagnosis in DSM-5?

Depersonalization or derealization (Correct answer)
Alterations in cognition and mood
Persistent avoidance of trauma-related stimuli
Intrusion symptoms (e.g., flashbacks)

Correct answer: Depersonalization or derealization

PTSD requires intrusion, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions/mood, and alterations in arousal/reactivity; depersonalization/derealization are specifiers for a subtype, not core criteria.

Question 51: A child repeatedly pulls out their own hair, resulting in noticeable hair loss. The DSM-5 classifies this as:

Excoriation disorder
Body dysmorphic disorder
Trichotillomania (Correct answer)
Stereotypic movement disorder

Correct answer: Trichotillomania

Trichotillomania (hair-pulling disorder) is classified in DSM-5 under Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders and involves recurrent compulsive hair pulling.

Question 52: In Vygotsky's theory, what term describes the gap between what a learner can do independently and what they can achieve with guidance?

Sensitive period
Critical period
Zone of proximal development (Correct answer)
Scaffolding framework

Correct answer: Zone of proximal development

The zone of proximal development (ZPD) represents the distance between a learner's independent ability and their potential ability with skilled assistance.

Question 53: What kind of measure is used to assess how people feel?

Behavioral self-report
Affective self-report (Correct answer)
Observational measures
Physiological measures

Correct answer: Affective self-report

Affective self-report measures are used to assess an individual's emotional states, feelings, and moods. These typically involve questionnaires or scales where participants rate their current or recent emotional experiences. This method provides direct insight into subjective emotional responses, which are central to understanding psychological well-being and reactions.

Question 54: Which of the following best describes the primary distinction between the M'Naghten standard and the Model Penal Code (MPC) standard for the insanity defense?

The MPC standard was invalidated by Congress after the Hinckley verdict, while M'Naghten remains federal law
M'Naghten applies only to homicide cases, while the MPC applies to all felony offenses
M'Naghten focuses solely on cognitive impairment (knowing right from wrong), while the MPC also includes volitional impairment (inability to conform conduct to the law) (Correct answer)
M'Naghten requires proof of a biological brain disorder, while the MPC accepts any DSM diagnosis

Correct answer: M'Naghten focuses solely on cognitive impairment (knowing right from wrong), while the MPC also includes volitional impairment (inability to conform conduct to the law)

The M'Naghten rule (1843) tests only whether the defendant knew the nature of the act or knew it was wrong—a purely cognitive test. The MPC substantial capacity test (1962) broadens this by also excusing defendants who, as a result of mental disease, lacked substantial capacity to conform their conduct to the law, adding a volitional component.

Question 55: What does a standard deviation of zero indicate about a data set?

All values in the data set are identical (Correct answer)
There are no outliers in the data
The mean is zero
The data is normally distributed

Correct answer: All values in the data set are identical

A standard deviation of zero means there is no variability at all, so every score in the data set is exactly the same value.

Question 56: The reticular activating system (RAS) in the brainstem plays a key role in regulating:

Voluntary motor control of limbs
Spatial navigation and memory
Arousal and states of consciousness (Correct answer)
Procedural memory consolidation

Correct answer: Arousal and states of consciousness

The RAS modulates arousal, wakefulness, and attention by sending diffuse activating signals to the cortex.

Question 57: Which concept describes the way individuals actively select, shape, and evoke environments based on their genetic predispositions, linking nature and nurture?

Canalization
Gene-environment interaction
Gene-environment correlation (Correct answer)
Epigenesis

Correct answer: Gene-environment correlation

Gene-environment correlation refers to the systematic relationship between a person's genetic tendencies and the environments they are exposed to or seek out.

Question 58: What term describes the group of people born at around the same time in the same place, influenced by the social and cultural context of that period?

Collective
Cohort (Correct answer)
Social Circle
Peer Group

Correct answer: Cohort

A cohort is defined as a group of individuals who share a common experience, most typically being born around the same time and in the same place. This shared temporal and geographical context means they are exposed to similar historical, social, and cultural influences, which can shape their development and perspectives. This term is fundamental in developmental and sociological research for understanding generational effects.

Question 59: Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that when people hold conflicting beliefs, they will:

Report satisfaction with the inconsistency
Become more committed to both beliefs simultaneously
Ignore one belief entirely
Experience psychological discomfort and seek to reduce it (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Experience psychological discomfort and seek to reduce it

Festinger's cognitive dissonance theory states that conflicting cognitions create uncomfortable tension that motivates attitude or behavior change.

Question 60: In Mary Ainsworth's "Strange Situation" experiment, a toddler shows little to no distress when their mother leaves the room and actively ignores or avoids her upon her return. This pattern of behavior is characteristic of which attachment style?

Secure attachment
Disorganized attachment
Ambivalent attachment
Avoidant attachment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Avoidant attachment

Insecure-avoidant attachment is characterized by a child's apparent indifference to the caregiver's presence. They do not seem distressed by separation and will actively avoid contact or interaction when the caregiver returns.

Question 61: Which biological process refers to the brain's selective elimination of unused synaptic connections during development?

Synaptic pruning (Correct answer)
Cortical thickening
Neurogenesis
Myelination

Correct answer: Synaptic pruning

Synaptic pruning is the process by which the brain eliminates weaker neural connections, increasing efficiency and specialization over development.

Question 62: In Erikson's psychosocial theory, what is the primary crisis faced during middle adulthood (approximately ages 40-65)?

Generativity vs. stagnation (Correct answer)
Intimacy vs. isolation
Integrity vs. despair
Industry vs. inferiority

Correct answer: Generativity vs. stagnation

Generativity vs. stagnation involves adults' concern with establishing and guiding the next generation through parenting, mentoring, or productive work.

BAPSY (Bachelor of Arts in Psychology) Exam

The BAPSY (Bachelor of Arts in Psychology) Exam exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

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