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Mixed Deck — All ATPL Topics Flashcards

100 cards from real ATPL practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. Readback of which of the following ATC instructions is always required?

    Answer: Taxi instructions including runway crossing clearances and hold-short instructions

    FAA and ICAO both require pilots to always read back taxi instructions, runway crossing clearances, and hold-short instructions to verify understanding and prevent runway incursions.

  2. Mach tuck (tuck-under) experienced in transonic flight is primarily caused by:

    Answer: Rearward shift of the center of pressure due to shock wave formation

    As Mach number increases into the transonic range, shock wave formation causes a rearward migration of the center of pressure, generating a strong nose-down pitching moment.

  3. According to Bernoulli's principle, what happens to static pressure when airflow velocity increases over an airfoil?

    Answer: Static pressure decreases

    Bernoulli's principle states that as fluid velocity increases, static pressure decreases, creating the pressure differential across the wing that generates lift.

  4. A temperature inversion is characterized by:

    Answer: Temperature increasing with altitude

    A temperature inversion is a layer of the atmosphere where temperature increases with altitude rather than the normal decrease, trapping pollutants and moisture below.

  5. The load factor (n) is defined as the ratio of:

    Answer: Total aerodynamic lift to aircraft weight

    Load factor n = Lift / Weight and represents the number of 'g's the structure experiences; in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight n = 1.0.

  6. What is the primary function of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) on an aircraft?

    Answer: To generate electrical power and provide bleed air for engine start and cabin conditioning

    The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is a small turbine engine located in the tail section of most large aircraft. Its primary function is to generate electrical power for the aircraft's systems when the main engines are shut down, and to provide bleed air for starting the main engines and for cabin air conditioning and pressurization. This allows the aircraft to operate independently of ground power units and air carts, enhancing operational flexibility.

  7. The aerodynamic center of an airfoil is the point about which the pitching moment coefficient:

    Answer: Remains approximately constant with changes in angle of attack

    The aerodynamic center is the point about which the pitching moment coefficient remains essentially constant with changes in angle of attack, located approximately at the quarter-chord point.

  8. Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is used on which type of approaches?

    Answer: Non-precision approaches (VOR, NDB, LNAV)

    MDA is used on non-precision approaches where vertical guidance is not provided — the pilot descends to the MDA and flies level until the runway environment is in sight or the missed approach point is reached.

  9. What type of fog forms when warm, moist air moves over a cooler surface?

    Answer: Advection fog

    Advection fog forms when warm, moist air is transported horizontally over a cooler surface, causing the air to cool below its dew point.

  10. Microburst windshear is primarily dangerous to aircraft during:

    Answer: Takeoff and landing

    Microbursts are most hazardous during takeoff and landing because the rapid change from headwind to tailwind causes a sudden loss of airspeed and lift at low altitudes.

  11. When squawking 7700 on the transponder, the pilot is indicating:

    Answer: General emergency

    Transponder code 7700 is the international emergency squawk code indicating a general emergency, alerting ATC to the aircraft's status on radar immediately.

  12. An ATIS broadcast's primary purpose is to:

    Answer: Continuously broadcast routine terminal information to reduce ATC workload

    ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) continuously broadcasts current weather and NOTAMs for a specific airport, allowing pilots to receive this information before contacting ATC and reducing repetitive transmissions.

  13. Decision Altitude (DA) differs from Decision Height (DH) in that:

    Answer: DA is referenced to mean sea level while DH is referenced to threshold elevation

    Decision Altitude is referenced to mean sea level (MSL) while Decision Height is referenced to the height above the runway threshold — both mark the point where a missed approach must be initiated if visual contact is not established.

  14. Which type of aerodynamic drag increases as airspeed increases?

    Answer: Parasite drag

    Parasite drag (including form, interference, and skin friction drag) increases proportionally with the square of airspeed.

  15. During an ILS approach, the glide slope needle indicates 'fly up' (needle below center). The pilot should:

    Answer: Reduce descent rate or level off momentarily to allow glide slope to come back up

    When the glide slope needle shows 'fly up' (below center), the aircraft is below the glide slope — the pilot should reduce descent rate or level off to allow the aircraft to return to the glide slope.

  16. Which flap type produces the greatest increase in both lift coefficient and wing area?

    Answer: Fowler flap

    Fowler flaps both extend rearward (increasing wing chord and area) and deflect downward, producing the greatest increase in lift with significant drag.

  17. The angle of attack (AOA) is defined as the angle between:

    Answer: The relative wind and the chord line of the wing

    Angle of attack is measured between the free-stream relative wind and the chord line of the airfoil, regardless of the aircraft's pitch attitude.

  18. With respect to Flight Duty Time extensions, who is permitted to extend the Flight Duty Day beyond the normal 14 hour maximum?

    Answer: The Cheif Pilot.

    Aviation regulations typically designate specific individuals with the authority to approve extensions to flight duty times to ensure safety and compliance. The Chief Pilot, as a senior operational manager with oversight of flight operations and pilot qualifications, is usually the designated authority for such decisions. This ensures that any extensions are made with due consideration for operational safety and regulatory requirements.

  19. What physiological effect does sustained G-force (positive G) have on a pilot?

    Answer: Blood pooling in the lower extremities causing G-induced loss of consciousness (GLOC)

    Positive G-forces cause blood to pool in the lower extremities, reducing cerebral blood flow and potentially leading to grey-out, black-out, and G-induced loss of consciousness (GLOC).

  20. Wing sweep on jet transport aircraft primarily benefits cruise performance because it:

    Answer: Raises the critical Mach number by reducing the velocity component perpendicular to the leading edge

    Swept wings effectively increase the critical Mach number because only the velocity component normal to the leading edge governs compressibility effects, allowing higher cruise Mach numbers.