ASPS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ASPS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which ASPS guideline recommends that patients should be at a stable weight for at least how many months before elective body contouring surgery? → 6 months
2. Which laser is classified as ablative and removes the outer skin layer, making it effective for significant skin resurfacing? → CO2 laser (10,600 nm)
3. A plastic surgeon suspects that a colleague is impaired by alcohol during operating hours. The most appropriate first step is to: → Report the concern directly to the hospital chief of surgery or peer review committee
4. Ptosis of the brow below the superior orbital rim in a female patient is best corrected by which procedure? → Brow lift (forehead lift)
5. The superior gluteal artery perforator (SGAP) flap exits the pelvis through which anatomical structure? → The greater sciatic foramen above the piriformis
6. Which technology trend is most likely to impact quality assurance & continuous improvement in the ASPS field in coming years? → Digital tools for enhanced data collection, analysis, and reporting
7. In office-based surgery, what is a critical factor for patient safety? → Availability of emergency protocols and trained staff
8. Which rhinoplasty technique involves making all incisions inside the nostrils, leaving no external scars? → Closed rhinoplasty
9. Which documentation practice is most important for professional standards & ethics in the ASPS field? → Maintaining complete, accurate, and timely records
10. When implementing quality assurance & continuous improvement practices, what should a ASPS professional prioritize first? → Compliance with established standards and protocols
11. Which statistical measure represents the probability of a study finding a true effect when one actually exists? → Statistical power (1 - β)
12. Which of the following is a common risk of cosmetic surgery? → Infection and bleeding
13. In a study of facelift outcomes, confounding occurs when: → A third variable (e.g., smoking) is associated with both exposure and outcome
14. Which nerve coaptation technique involves trimming nerve ends to healthy fascicles and using fibrin glue or sutures without tension? → Neurorrhaphy
15. During preoperative planning for a microvascular anastomosis, which intraoperative finding most reliably predicts anastomotic patency? → Strong pulsatile flow in the recipient artery upon release of clamps
16. Which ethical principle requires physicians to avoid harm to patients? → Non-maleficence
17. In American Society of Plastic Surgeons, what role does quality assurance & continuous improvement play in ensuring client/stakeholder satisfaction? → It builds trust through demonstrated competence and consistency
18. Which of the following best describes a key competency required for communication & stakeholder management in ASPS certification? → Critical thinking and evidence-based decision making
19. Which structure forms the posterior boundary of the anatomical snuffbox, relevant in radial forearm flap elevation? → Extensor pollicis longus tendon
20. A patient undergoes a pedicled latissimus dorsi flap. Postoperatively, which functional deficit is most likely? → Weakness in shoulder adduction and internal rotation
21. What is the recommended timing for replantation of a completely amputated digit to maximize viability? → Within 6 hours warm ischemia or 12 hours cold ischemia
22. Which registry maintained by ASPS collects prospective data on patient outcomes and complications in plastic surgery? → TOPS (Tracking Operations and Outcomes for Plastic Surgeons)
23. A patient presents with a wound that has failed to progress in 4 weeks despite standard care. The FIRST step in reassessment should be: → Performing a wound biopsy to rule out malignancy
24. What is a key indication for using a muscle flap in reconstruction? → Coverage of exposed bone or hardware
25. In clinical outcomes research, an intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis includes: → All randomized patients regardless of protocol adherence or dropout
26. During upper blepharoplasty, which structure must be preserved to prevent ptosis? → Levator aponeurosis
27. What is the primary advantage of a musculocutaneous flap over a fasciocutaneous flap for infected wounds? → Superior bulk for obliteration of dead space and infection control
28. When using tissue expanders for breast reconstruction, capsular contracture risk is primarily reduced by: → Textured expander surfaces and antibiotic irrigation
29. Which outcome measure is most specific for assessing functional recovery after peripheral nerve repair? → Static two-point discrimination
30. The BODY-Q is a validated patient-reported outcome instrument designed to measure outcomes after: → Body contouring surgery