Practice Test Geeks(ASPPB) Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards Practice Test
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Psychopharmacology Flashcards

7 cards from real ASPPB practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Psychopharmacology flashcards as text

  1. Which receptor mechanism explains why quetiapine at low doses (25–50 mg) is often used as a sleep aid?

    Answer: H1 histamine receptor antagonism causing sedation

    Quetiapine's strong H1 histamine blockade at low doses produces sedation before appreciable D2 or 5-HT2A blockade occurs.

  2. A child with ADHD and a tic disorder is being considered for stimulant therapy. The current evidence-based recommendation is:

    Answer: Stimulants can be used; they do not consistently worsen tics and non-stimulants are an alternative

    Current evidence shows stimulants do not reliably worsen tics in most children; alpha-2 agonists like guanfacine address both conditions.

  3. The mechanism by which disulfiram produces aversive effects when alcohol is consumed is:

    Answer: Inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing acetaldehyde accumulation

    Disulfiram inhibits ALDH2, preventing acetaldehyde oxidation; acetaldehyde accumulation causes flushing, nausea, and tachycardia.

  4. Which antipsychotic has the greatest risk of QTc prolongation and is associated with torsades de pointes?

    Answer: Thioridazine

    Thioridazine carries a black-box warning for QTc prolongation and torsades de pointes, leading to restricted use.

  5. Gabapentin's mechanism of action in treating neuropathic pain and anxiety involves:

    Answer: Binding to the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels

    Gabapentin binds the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels, reducing presynaptic calcium influx and neurotransmitter release.

  6. A prescribing psychologist's patient develops fever, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic instability two days after starting haloperidol. The priority intervention is:

    Answer: Discontinue the antipsychotic and provide supportive care; consider dantrolene or bromocriptine

    This presentation is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome; immediate antipsychotic discontinuation and supportive care are essential, with dantrolene or bromocriptine for severe cases.

  7. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of therapeutic window in pharmacology?

    Answer: The range of plasma concentrations producing efficacy without toxicity

    Therapeutic window refers to the concentration range above which toxicity occurs and below which efficacy is lost; lithium has a notably narrow window.