Aviation Safety Inspector (ASI) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: An operator holds a Part 135 certificate but wants to add a new aircraft type to their operations. What document must be amended?

Operations specifications (Correct answer)
Air carrier certificate
Aircraft registration
Airworthiness certificate

Correct answer: Operations specifications

Adding a new aircraft type to a Part 135 operation requires amendment of the operator's operations specifications to include the new aircraft.

Question 2: What does a Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) authorize?

A change to an existing type design that has been FAA-approved (Correct answer)
Issuance of airworthiness certificates to foreign aircraft
Special flight permits for experimental aircraft
Operation of an aircraft beyond its originally certified limits

Correct answer: A change to an existing type design that has been FAA-approved

An STC is issued when an applicant shows that a product change meets applicable airworthiness standards, authorizing that specific modification.

Question 3: How do inspection procedures help maintain aviation safety?

They ensure the aircraft is aesthetically pleasing.
They help avoid unnecessary aircraft downtime.
They help identify and address safety hazards before they cause accidents (Correct answer)
They ensure compliance with environmental standards.

Correct answer: They help identify and address safety hazards before they cause accidents

Inspection procedures are a proactive safety measure designed to systematically examine aircraft and operations to detect potential malfunctions, wear, damage, or non-compliance. By identifying and rectifying these safety hazards early, inspections play a critical role in preventing incidents and accidents. This ensures the continued airworthiness and safe operation of aircraft.

Question 4: A 'Bow-Tie' analysis in SMS is used to:

Visualize both the causes of a hazard and the consequences if barriers fail (Correct answer)
Calculate maintenance interval cost
Assign disciplinary actions for violations
Determine weather-related delays

Correct answer: Visualize both the causes of a hazard and the consequences if barriers fail

Bow-Tie analysis maps threat pathways on the left and consequence pathways on the right, with the hazard at the center and barriers illustrated at each pathway.

Question 5: Under 14 CFR Part 121.373, what is the primary purpose of a Continuing Analysis and Surveillance System (CASS)?

Evaluating passenger complaint trends to improve service quality
Monitoring air traffic control communications for compliance
Tracking competitor airline safety records for industry benchmarking
Ensuring the adequacy and effectiveness of the carrier's maintenance and inspection programs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensuring the adequacy and effectiveness of the carrier's maintenance and inspection programs

CASS is a systematic process required by §121.373 allowing the carrier and FAA to continuously assess whether maintenance and inspection programs remain effective.

Question 6: An ASI reviewing an SMS program finds that safety data is collected but never analyzed. Which SMS component is most deficient?

Safety Promotion
Safety Policy
Safety Risk Management
Safety Assurance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Safety Assurance

Safety Assurance requires that collected safety data be systematically analyzed to identify trends, evaluate control effectiveness, and drive continuous improvement.

Question 7: Which FAA regulation mandates SMS implementation for Part 121 air carriers?

14 CFR Part 61
14 CFR Part 139
14 CFR Part 5 (Correct answer)
14 CFR Part 119

Correct answer: 14 CFR Part 5

14 CFR Part 5 establishes the SMS requirements for Part 121 certificate holders, specifying the four-component framework and implementation standards.

Question 8: An ASI is conducting a ramp inspection of a turbine-powered aircraft. The operator presents maintenance records showing no entry for the last 100-hour inspection. The aircraft has accrued 115 hours since the last recorded inspection. What is the appropriate ASI action?

Issue a warning letter and allow 15 days for the operator to reconstruct the records
Refer the matter to the local FSDO for a legal determination before taking any field action
Accept an operator's verbal attestation that the inspection was performed but not recorded
Ground the aircraft for non-compliance with 14 CFR §91.409 inspection requirements until it receives an overdue 100-hour inspection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ground the aircraft for non-compliance with 14 CFR §91.409 inspection requirements until it receives an overdue 100-hour inspection

An aircraft operated past its required 100-hour inspection interval without records of compliance is not airworthy and must be grounded until the overdue inspection is completed.

Question 9: Which ASTM standard is referenced by the FAA for Light Sport Aircraft (LSA) airworthiness under 14 CFR Part 21?

ASTM F2245 (Correct answer)
ASTM F2279
ASTM F2295
ASTM F2197

Correct answer: ASTM F2245

ASTM F2245 is the consensus standard for design and performance of light sport airplanes, incorporated by reference in the FAA's LSA framework.

Question 10: What is the primary purpose of a Special Airworthiness Certificate issued in the Experimental category?

To allow flight of aircraft that do not meet standard airworthiness requirements for specific purposes (Correct answer)
To replace a lapsed standard airworthiness certificate
To permit revenue passenger service on newly certified aircraft
To authorize air carrier operations with foreign-registered aircraft

Correct answer: To allow flight of aircraft that do not meet standard airworthiness requirements for specific purposes

Special airworthiness certificates in the Experimental category authorize operations for purposes like R&D, amateur-built, or exhibition when standard certification is not applicable.

Question 11: What is the primary purpose of an Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting (ARFF) index as specified in 14 CFR Part 139.315?

To determine the level of ARFF equipment and personnel required based on aircraft types served (Correct answer)
To classify fire suppression chemicals approved for use
To rank airports by traffic volume for federal funding
To set the response time standard for all emergencies

Correct answer: To determine the level of ARFF equipment and personnel required based on aircraft types served

The ARFF index (A through E) is assigned based on the length of the largest aircraft served and determines the required quantity of equipment and trained personnel.

Question 12: When performing a major repair on an aircraft, the FAA Form 337 must be submitted to which office?

FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute
Local FSDO (Correct answer)
National Aviation Authority abroad
Aircraft manufacturer

Correct answer: Local FSDO

FAA Form 337 for major repairs must be submitted to the local Flight Standards District Office (FSDO).

Question 13: Under the FAA's compliance philosophy, the preferred outcome of any enforcement or compliance action is:

Revocation of the certificate to remove the violator from aviation
Maximum financial penalty to deter future violations
Correction of the underlying safety issue and return to compliance (Correct answer)
Public notification of the violation details

Correct answer: Correction of the underlying safety issue and return to compliance

The FAA's compliance philosophy prioritizes correcting safety problems and achieving compliance over punitive outcomes.

Question 14: During a ramp inspection, an ASI notices a logbook entry that is incomplete — it lacks the mechanic's certificate number. What action should the ASI take?

Revoke the mechanic's certificate immediately
Issue a Letter of Correction to the aircraft owner and document the finding (Correct answer)
Ignore it as a minor administrative issue
Ground the aircraft until the entry is corrected by the responsible mechanic

Correct answer: Issue a Letter of Correction to the aircraft owner and document the finding

An incomplete maintenance entry is a regulatory violation; the ASI should document the finding and issue a Letter of Correction, potentially initiating enforcement action.

Question 15: What form is used to record a major repair or major alteration accomplished under 14 CFR Part 43?

FAA Form 8110-3
FAA Form 337 (Correct answer)
FAA Form 8130-3
FAA Form 8130-9

Correct answer: FAA Form 337

FAA Form 337 (Major Repair and Alteration) is the required record for documenting major repairs and alterations performed on type-certificated aircraft.

Question 16: Which regulatory part governs the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes during type certification?

FAR Part 33
FAR Part 27
FAR Part 25 (Correct answer)
FAR Part 23

Correct answer: FAR Part 25

FAR Part 25 establishes the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes, including structural, flight, and system requirements.

Question 17: An ASI is conducting a records review and finds that required maintenance entries are legible but some are missing the technician's certificate number. Under FAA Order 8900.1, this is BEST classified as:

An airworthiness concern grounding the aircraft
A criminal referral to the DOJ
An administrative deficiency that may be corrected through compliance action (Correct answer)
A major violation requiring certificate action

Correct answer: An administrative deficiency that may be corrected through compliance action

Missing administrative data in maintenance records is a regulatory deficiency that can typically be addressed through compliance action rather than punitive enforcement.

Question 18: What document must be carried aboard an aircraft during all flight operations under 14 CFR 91.9?

The FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent (Correct answer)
The aircraft's maintenance records
The pilot's logbook
A copy of the applicable airworthiness directives

Correct answer: The FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent

14 CFR 91.9 requires the FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual, approved manual material, or placards to be accessible to the flight crew.

Question 19: Which concept in SMS refers to the conditions in the work environment that predispose personnel to commit errors?

Latent conditions (Correct answer)
Triggering events
Organizational accidents
Active failures

Correct answer: Latent conditions

Latent conditions are pre-existing system weaknesses (poor design, inadequate training, flawed procedures) that lie dormant until combined with active failures to cause accidents.

Question 20: An ASI finds a corrosion on an aircraft's primary structure that has been stop-drilled and left without further treatment or a corrosion inhibitor. What determination is most appropriate?

The aircraft is airworthy if the stop-drill was documented on an FAA Form 337
The stop-drilling is an acceptable permanent repair if performed by an IA
The repair is incomplete — corrosion treatment and inhibitor application are required per AC 43.13-1B to restore airworthiness (Correct answer)
Stop-drilling is an approved final repair for corrosion on non-critical primary structure

Correct answer: The repair is incomplete — corrosion treatment and inhibitor application are required per AC 43.13-1B to restore airworthiness

AC 43.13-1B specifies that corrosion repairs must include removal of corrosion, treatment of the affected area, and application of corrosion inhibitor — stop-drilling alone is insufficient.

Question 21: Why is the aircraft logbook important?

It is used for keeping track of the aircraft's color scheme.
It helps in determining the aircraft's resale value.
It provides important data for flight safety audits (Correct answer)
It is only required for warranty purposes.

Correct answer: It provides important data for flight safety audits

The aircraft logbook is a comprehensive record of an aircraft's entire history, including maintenance, repairs, modifications, and flight hours. This detailed documentation is crucial for flight safety audits and regulatory compliance, as it allows inspectors to verify that all required maintenance has been performed and that the aircraft meets airworthiness standards. It serves as an essential historical record for tracking the aircraft's operational life and ensuring continued safety.

Question 22: A Part 121 air carrier's Safety Management System identifies a recurring navigation error pattern before any accident occurs. This proactive identification is an example of:

Proactive safety management through hazard identification and risk assessment (Correct answer)
Corrective maintenance program
Reactive safety management
Compliance-based oversight only

Correct answer: Proactive safety management through hazard identification and risk assessment

Identifying safety trends before they result in accidents is the hallmark of proactive SMS — using data to find and mitigate risks before harm occurs.

Question 23: Under FAR Part 21, what must a Production Approval Holder do when it discovers that previously delivered aircraft may have a safety-of-flight defect?

Issue a company service letter within 30 days notifying operators of the issue
Report the defect to the FAA under FAR Part 21.3 within 24 hours of discovery and initiate corrective action (Correct answer)
Wait until the next scheduled production review meeting to formally document the finding
Notify the NTSB and suspend production pending investigation

Correct answer: Report the defect to the FAA under FAR Part 21.3 within 24 hours of discovery and initiate corrective action

FAR Part 21.3 requires Production Approval Holders to report to the FAA within 24 hours any defect that may present an unsafe condition in delivered aircraft.

Question 24: An air carrier's aircraft returns from a flight with hydraulic fluid found on the nose gear doors. Under Part 121, the maintenance controller must ensure the discrepancy is addressed via which document?

A verbal authorization from the Director of Operations
The aircraft owner's personal logbook
A signed waiver from the FAA Flight Standards District Office
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or corrective action before the next revenue flight (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or corrective action before the next revenue flight

Under Part 121, all discrepancies must be resolved through the MEL process or corrective maintenance before the next revenue departure.

Question 25: When an ASI issues a Letter of Correction (LOC), what does the certificate holder's acceptance of the LOC signify?

Consent to increased surveillance for the following 24 months
Admission of guilt that can be used in future enforcement proceedings
Agreement to correct the identified deficiency without admission of a violation (Correct answer)
Payment of a reduced civil penalty in lieu of formal action

Correct answer: Agreement to correct the identified deficiency without admission of a violation

Acceptance of a Letter of Correction means the certificate holder agrees to take corrective action without formally admitting to a regulatory violation.

Question 26: Under 14 CFR Part 135, what is the maximum flight time for a single-pilot crew member in a 24-consecutive-hour period?

14 hours
12 hours
8 hours
10 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10 hours

14 CFR 135.267 limits single-pilot flight time to 10 hours in any 24 consecutive hours for on-demand operations.

Question 27: An ASI discovers that a Part 135 operator's crew pairing violated rest requirements in the 72 hours preceding a fatal accident. This finding most directly implicates which causal category?

Maintenance error
Human factors — physiological (fatigue) (Correct answer)
Aircraft systems failure
Environmental factors

Correct answer: Human factors — physiological (fatigue)

Rest requirement violations directly suggest crew fatigue, which is categorized under human factors — physiological in accident investigation taxonomy.

Question 28: In the context of avionics certification, what does DO-178C address?

Environmental testing conditions for avionics equipment
Software considerations in airborne systems and equipment certification (Correct answer)
Electromagnetic compatibility testing procedures
Hardware design assurance for airborne systems

Correct answer: Software considerations in airborne systems and equipment certification

DO-178C (Software Considerations in Airborne Systems and Equipment Certification) is the standard for software development and certification in avionics systems.

Question 29: A repair station certificate issued under 14 CFR Part 145 that includes a limited rating authorizes the station to:

Train mechanics for FAA certification
Perform maintenance only on specific articles listed in its operations specifications (Correct answer)
Approve aircraft for return to service without an IA
Perform any maintenance on any aircraft of any weight

Correct answer: Perform maintenance only on specific articles listed in its operations specifications

A limited rating restricts the certificated repair station to specific maintenance functions or articles as described in its ratings and operations specifications.

Question 30: Under FAA Order 8900.1, when an ASI conducts a ramp inspection and finds an avionics discrepancy, the first step is to:

Immediately ground the aircraft regardless of severity
Assess whether the discrepancy constitutes an airworthiness condition (Correct answer)
Issue an emergency airworthiness directive
Require the aircraft to return to its home base

Correct answer: Assess whether the discrepancy constitutes an airworthiness condition

During a ramp inspection, an ASI must first assess the nature and severity of the discrepancy to determine whether it constitutes an airworthiness condition requiring grounding.

Question 31: What is one of the key responsibilities of aviation safety inspectors?

To inspect aircraft and operations for compliance (Correct answer)
To perform maintenance on aircraft.
To train pilots on new technology.
To handle air traffic control.

Correct answer: To inspect aircraft and operations for compliance

Aviation safety inspectors play a critical role in ensuring compliance with aviation regulations and standards. They conduct thorough inspections of aircraft, maintenance facilities, flight operations, and personnel to identify potential hazards and ensure adherence to safety protocols.

Question 32: What is a key component in ensuring aviation safety during maintenance?

Postponing inspections to reduce costs.
Regular inspections and adherence to maintenance procedures (Correct answer)
Reducing the number of maintenance staff.
Ignoring minor issues until they escalate.

Correct answer: Regular inspections and adherence to maintenance procedures

Aviation safety during maintenance is primarily ensured through a robust system of regular, scheduled inspections and strict adherence to established maintenance procedures and protocols. These practices help identify and rectify potential issues before they compromise safety, ensuring that aircraft components and systems are always in optimal working condition. Diligent execution of maintenance tasks by qualified personnel is paramount.

Question 33: Under SMS principles, 'organizational factors' that contribute to accidents include:

Weather conditions beyond management control
Only individual pilot errors
Leadership decisions, resource allocation, and corporate culture that shape operational safety (Correct answer)
Aircraft design flaws from the manufacturer only

Correct answer: Leadership decisions, resource allocation, and corporate culture that shape operational safety

Organizational factors are systemic influences such as management priorities, staffing levels, and safety culture that create conditions where errors or accidents become more likely.

Question 34: An ASI finds that an aircraft has a Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) modification installed, but the aircraft logbook shows the STC data package is missing. What is the most serious airworthiness concern?

Only the weight and balance data needs to be present, not the full STC package
The aircraft loses its ability to operate under IFR until the data package is located
The modification cannot be verified as properly approved and installed per the STC, potentially making the aircraft not airworthy (Correct answer)
The STC holder's warranty is void without the data package on board

Correct answer: The modification cannot be verified as properly approved and installed per the STC, potentially making the aircraft not airworthy

Without the STC data package, the ASI cannot verify the modification was installed in accordance with its approved data, which is a fundamental airworthiness concern.

Question 35: What is the purpose of an aircraft's performance check?

To determine the aircraft's market value.
To assess how much weight the aircraft can carry.
To verify the aircraft's color scheme.
To verify engine efficiency and flight performance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To verify engine efficiency and flight performance

An aircraft's performance check is a crucial evaluation conducted to ensure the aircraft and its systems are operating as designed and within specified parameters. This involves assessing engine efficiency, fuel consumption, climb rates, speed, and other flight characteristics. Verifying these aspects ensures the aircraft can safely and effectively perform its intended operations.

Question 36: What is the primary distinction between an 'accident' and an 'incident' under 49 CFR 830.2?

Accidents occur in flight; incidents occur on the ground
Accidents result in death, serious injury, or substantial damage; incidents are occurrences other than accidents that affect safety (Correct answer)
Accidents require NTSB investigation; incidents require only FAA review
Accidents involve commercial aircraft; incidents involve general aviation

Correct answer: Accidents result in death, serious injury, or substantial damage; incidents are occurrences other than accidents that affect safety

49 CFR 830.2 defines an accident by its outcome (death, serious injury, or substantial damage), while an incident is any other occurrence associated with aircraft operation that affects safety.

Question 37: According to the definitions in NTSB Part 830, which of the following scenarios constitutes an 'aircraft accident' that requires immediate notification?

The complete failure of the aircraft's primary navigation system while in IFR conditions, forcing a diversion, but resulting in a safe landing.
A hard landing that results in a passenger suffering a fractured ankle and the aircraft's landing gear sustaining damage requiring major repair. (Correct answer)
An in-flight fire that is extinguished by the crew with no resulting damage to the aircraft structure or injury to persons.
A collision with a ground vehicle during taxi that dents the wing's leading edge but does not affect its structural integrity.

Correct answer: A hard landing that results in a passenger suffering a fractured ankle and the aircraft's landing gear sustaining damage requiring major repair.

NTSB Part 830.2 defines an 'aircraft accident' as an occurrence where any person suffers a serious injury OR the aircraft receives substantial damage. A fractured bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose) is defined as a 'serious injury'. Damage that 'adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics' and requires major repair is defined as 'substantial damage'. This scenario meets both criteria. The other options describe incidents that may require notification but do not meet the specific definition of an accident.

Question 38: The Program Tracking and Reporting Subsystem (PTRS) is used by Aviation Safety Inspectors primarily to:

Coordinate air traffic control clearances during flight inspections
Process airman certificate applications and renewals
Schedule and approve air carrier route applications
Document surveillance activities, inspection findings, and follow-up actions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Document surveillance activities, inspection findings, and follow-up actions

PTRS is the FAA's system for recording and tracking ASI surveillance activities, inspection findings, and enforcement actions, creating an accountability audit trail.

Question 39: A flight management system (FMS) software update is considered what type of maintenance action?

Line maintenance only
A minor alteration if FAA-approved data is used (Correct answer)
Preventive maintenance
A major alteration requiring an STC

Correct answer: A minor alteration if FAA-approved data is used

An FMS software update performed using FAA-approved data (such as manufacturer service bulletins) is typically considered a minor alteration.

Question 40: An ASI is inspecting a newly imported aircraft that has not yet received a U.S. airworthiness certificate. The aircraft has a certificate from its country of manufacture. To receive a Standard Airworthiness Certificate in the United States, the aircraft must conform to what?

Its FAA-approved Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) and be in a condition for safe operation. (Correct answer)
The standards outlined in the aircraft's flight manual exclusively.
The maintenance program of its previous foreign operator.
The current airworthiness standards of its country of manufacture.

Correct answer: Its FAA-approved Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) and be in a condition for safe operation.

For an aircraft to be eligible for a Standard Airworthiness Certificate, the FAA must find that the aircraft conforms to its type design, which is detailed in the Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS). Additionally, the aircraft must be in a condition for safe operation. This applies to both newly manufactured and imported aircraft seeking U.S. certification.

Question 41: An aircraft sustains substantial damage during a ground collision with a ground vehicle. Under 49 CFR 830, this event is classified as:

A ground occurrence requiring only local reporting
An accident if any person aboard suffered injury
An accident, since substantial damage occurred during aircraft operation (Correct answer)
An incident only, since no flight was involved

Correct answer: An accident, since substantial damage occurred during aircraft operation

Under 49 CFR 830.2, an aircraft accident includes events involving an aircraft in operation that result in death, serious injury, or substantial damage — ground collisions during operation qualify.

Question 42: In a Just Culture framework within SMS, which action by a safety-conscious organization is MOST appropriate following a human error event?

Refer all incidents to the FAA for enforcement action
Terminate the employee to send a message to other staff
Assess whether the action was a genuine error, at-risk behavior, or reckless behavior before determining response (Correct answer)
Accept all behaviors without consequence to encourage reporting

Correct answer: Assess whether the action was a genuine error, at-risk behavior, or reckless behavior before determining response

Just Culture distinguishes between honest mistakes, at-risk behavioral choices, and reckless behavior, applying proportionate responses to encourage reporting while maintaining accountability.

Question 43: Under 14 CFR Part 139.337, what action is required of a certificated airport following a wildlife strike that causes aircraft damage?

Notify the NTSB as a reportable accident
Immediately close the airport until wildlife are removed
File a report with U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service within 24 hours only
Conduct a wildlife hazard assessment if specific criteria are met (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Conduct a wildlife hazard assessment if specific criteria are met

Part 139.337 requires airports to conduct a wildlife hazard assessment after strikes meeting specific criteria, which may then trigger the need for a formal Wildlife Hazard Management Plan.

Question 44: An ASI discovers that an air carrier's SMS hazard identification relies solely on incident reports from flight crews. What critical gap does this represent?

Failure to use proactive and predictive hazard identification methods (Correct answer)
Non-compliance with NOTAM procedures
Insufficient crew training records
Inadequate aircraft maintenance documentation

Correct answer: Failure to use proactive and predictive hazard identification methods

Effective SMS hazard identification requires proactive methods (audits, surveys) and predictive methods (data analysis) in addition to reactive incident reporting.

Question 45: Which ICAO document provides the international standards that U.S. aviation regulations must substantially comply with?

ICAO Doc 7300
ICAO Annex 2
ICAO Doc 9859
ICAO Annex 8 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ICAO Annex 8

ICAO Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) provides international standards for aircraft airworthiness that contracting states must comply with.

Question 46: Under 14 CFR Part 43, who is authorized to perform a 100-hour inspection on a certificated aircraft?

The aircraft owner with a repairman certificate
Only an FAA inspector
An FAA-certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings (Correct answer)
Any certificated pilot

Correct answer: An FAA-certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings

14 CFR Part 43.3 authorizes FAA-certificated mechanics holding airframe and powerplant ratings to perform 100-hour inspections.

Question 47: When completing a Surveillance Activity Report (SAR), an ASI should record the inspection findings in a manner that:

Focuses exclusively on potential enforcement actions
Objectively documents all observations, both compliant and non-compliant (Correct answer)
Is written in technical jargon to demonstrate expertise
Summarizes only the most critical violations found

Correct answer: Objectively documents all observations, both compliant and non-compliant

SARs must objectively document all inspection findings, whether compliant or not, to provide a complete and accurate record of the surveillance activity.

Question 48: What is the relationship between a Safety Performance Target (SPT) and a Safety Performance Indicator (SPI)?

SPTs are reactive measures; SPIs are proactive goals
SPTs apply to maintenance; SPIs apply to flight operations only
They are interchangeable terms in the FAA SMS framework
An SPI measures performance data while an SPT sets the desired threshold for that indicator (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An SPI measures performance data while an SPT sets the desired threshold for that indicator

An SPI is the metric used to measure safety performance, while the SPT is the quantitative goal or threshold that the organization aims to achieve for that metric.

Question 49: Which 14 CFR part governs the certification and operations of repair stations?

Part 147
Part 65
Part 145 (Correct answer)
Part 43

Correct answer: Part 145

14 CFR Part 145 establishes requirements for the certification and operation of repair stations.

Question 50: During an en route inspection, an ASI discovers the captain's first-class medical certificate expired 30 days ago. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Issue an immediate warning notice to the captain only
Ground the aircraft and notify the Certificate-Holding District Office (Correct answer)
Allow the flight to continue and file a report upon landing
Permit the first officer to assume PIC duties for the remainder of the flight

Correct answer: Ground the aircraft and notify the Certificate-Holding District Office

An expired medical disqualifies the captain from serving as PIC; the ASI must ground the aircraft and notify the responsible CHDO for further action.

Question 51: Under FAR 91.3, who bears ultimate responsibility for the safe loading and weight/balance of a commercial aircraft?

The airline's dispatch department
The pilot in command (Correct answer)
The ground handling crew supervisor
The airline's designated weight and balance specialist

Correct answer: The pilot in command

FAR 91.3 establishes that the pilot in command is directly responsible for and final authority over the operation of the aircraft, including confirming proper loading.

Question 52: An airworthiness directive (AD) classified as 'Emergency' under 14 CFR Part 39 must be complied with:

Immediately upon receipt or before next flight (Correct answer)
At the next scheduled inspection
Within the next 10 flight hours
Within 30 days of issuance

Correct answer: Immediately upon receipt or before next flight

Emergency ADs require immediate compliance before the next flight to address critical safety hazards.

Question 53: What is 'time-of-useful-consciousness' (TUC) relevant to aviation safety inspections of pressurization systems?

The duration of an emergency oxygen supply
The maximum flight duty period allowed per shift
The interval between required crew rest breaks
The time available to take corrective action after exposure to hypoxic conditions before incapacitation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The time available to take corrective action after exposure to hypoxic conditions before incapacitation

TUC is the interval following rapid decompression during which a pilot can take effective corrective action before hypoxia causes incapacitation.

Question 54: Which FAR Part specifically governs the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration of aircraft?

FAR Part 65
FAR Part 39
FAR Part 43 (Correct answer)
FAR Part 21

Correct answer: FAR Part 43

FAR Part 43 specifically governs maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration of aircraft.

Question 55: An aircraft owner wants to conduct a ferry flight on an aircraft with an expired airworthiness certificate. Which document authorizes this?

An operator deviation authority granted by the airline's director of maintenance
A logbook endorsement from an A&P mechanic
A temporary airworthiness certificate issued by the FSDO
A special flight permit (ferry permit) issued under 14 CFR 21.197 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A special flight permit (ferry permit) issued under 14 CFR 21.197

A special flight permit issued under 14 CFR 21.197 authorizes ferry flights for aircraft that do not currently meet airworthiness requirements.

Question 56: What role do checklists play in aircraft inspections?

They help the inspector focus only on the visible components.
They help keep track of components that require future inspections.
They allow inspectors to skip irrelevant components.
They ensure all necessary components are thoroughly checked (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They ensure all necessary components are thoroughly checked

Checklists are indispensable tools in aircraft inspections as they provide a systematic and comprehensive guide for inspectors. By listing every component, system, or procedure that needs to be examined, checklists ensure that no critical item is overlooked during the inspection process. This methodical approach significantly enhances the thoroughness and reliability of inspections, directly contributing to aviation safety.

Question 57: What is the role of Designated Manufacturing Inspection Representatives (DMIRs) in aircraft production?

They issue export airworthiness certificates for aircraft sold abroad
They manage the supplier qualification program for Production Approval Holders
They perform final customer delivery inspections on behalf of buyers
They are FAA-authorized individuals who perform inspections and make airworthiness determinations at manufacturing facilities (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They are FAA-authorized individuals who perform inspections and make airworthiness determinations at manufacturing facilities

DMIRs are FAA-designated individuals at manufacturing facilities authorized to perform inspections and issue airworthiness approvals on behalf of the FAA.

Question 58: Which SMS tool is specifically designed to proactively identify hazards by examining what could go wrong before a process is implemented?

Mandatory Occurrence Reporting (MOR)
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) (Correct answer)
Accident investigation report
Corrective Action Plan (CAP)

Correct answer: Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

FMEA systematically examines each component or process step to identify potential failure modes and their effects before implementation, making it a proactive hazard identification tool.

Question 59: What is the significance of the 'Statement of Conformity' (FAA Form 8130-9) in aircraft manufacturing?

It is a manufacturer's declaration that an aircraft or part conforms to its approved type design (Correct answer)
It certifies that a pilot has completed type-specific training for a new aircraft model
It documents the aircraft's compliance with environmental noise regulations
It authorizes a maintenance facility to perform warranty repairs on a new aircraft

Correct answer: It is a manufacturer's declaration that an aircraft or part conforms to its approved type design

FAA Form 8130-9 is a Statement of Conformity in which the manufacturer certifies to the FAA that the aircraft or article conforms to its approved type design.

Question 60: What is the purpose of a First Article Inspection (FAI) in aviation manufacturing?

To perform a pre-delivery customer acceptance flight
To verify that a new supplier's facility meets environmental standards
To confirm that the first unit produced from a new or revised process conforms to design requirements (Correct answer)
To validate the aircraft's airworthiness certificate before sale

Correct answer: To confirm that the first unit produced from a new or revised process conforms to design requirements

A First Article Inspection (FAI) verifies that a production process is capable of producing parts that fully conform to engineering drawings and specifications.

Question 61: Which document would an ASI reference to determine if an avionics antenna installation meets structural and aerodynamic requirements?

FAA Advisory Circular AC 43.13-2B (Correct answer)
FAA Form 8050-88
NTSB Accident Report
Pilot's Operating Handbook

Correct answer: FAA Advisory Circular AC 43.13-2B

AC 43.13-2B (Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices — Aircraft Alterations) provides guidance on antenna installations including structural and aerodynamic requirements.

Question 62: What is the primary purpose of the Aviation Safety Hotline (ASIAS) data in accident investigations?

To verify pilot training records
To correlate voluntary safety reports with accident patterns to identify systemic risks (Correct answer)
To provide real-time notification of accidents to the NTSB
To identify pilots who should have their certificates revoked

Correct answer: To correlate voluntary safety reports with accident patterns to identify systemic risks

ASIAS integrates multiple aviation safety databases including voluntary reports to identify systemic risks and trends, supporting proactive safety management.

Question 63: During an audit of an air carrier's SMS, an Aviation Safety Inspector finds that the 'Accountable Executive' has signed a comprehensive Safety Policy statement. However, interviews with front-line personnel reveal they are unaware of the policy's contents or the company's specific safety objectives. This finding indicates a direct failure in which SMS component?

Safety Promotion, because it is solely responsible for all organizational training.
Safety Policy, because this component includes the requirement to communicate the policy throughout the organization. (Correct answer)
Safety Risk Management, because personnel cannot identify hazards without knowing the policy.
Safety Assurance, because the effectiveness of the policy cannot be measured.

Correct answer: Safety Policy, because this component includes the requirement to communicate the policy throughout the organization.

According to FAA regulations and guidance, the Safety Policy component itself requires that the policy be communicated throughout the organization. While Safety Promotion includes training and communication as a function, the fundamental requirement to communicate the policy is an element of the Safety Policy pillar, demonstrating management's commitment.

Question 64: What does a NOTAMthat includes the phrase 'CLSD' for a runway indicate, and who is responsible for filing it?

Runway is cleared of snow; filed by airport maintenance
Runway is closed; filed by the airport operator or controlling ATC facility (Correct answer)
Runway is cloudy/IFR; filed by the National Weather Service
Runway checkpoints are located; filed by the FAA Flight Standards District Office

Correct answer: Runway is closed; filed by the airport operator or controlling ATC facility

A NOTAM with 'CLSD' indicates the runway is closed, and the airport operator must file this NOTAM to alert pilots before the closure takes effect.

Question 65: Which of the following conditions would cause an aircraft to be considered 'unairworthy' under FAA regulations?

A cracked windshield that does not impair forward visibility
An expired annual inspection or an open Airworthiness Directive requiring immediate compliance (Correct answer)
A minor dent in a non-structural fairing
An inoperative passenger reading light on a cargo-only flight

Correct answer: An expired annual inspection or an open Airworthiness Directive requiring immediate compliance

An expired annual inspection or open mandatory AD requiring immediate compliance makes the aircraft legally unairworthy regardless of its actual flight condition.

Question 66: The FAA's Safety Management System (SMS) framework for certificate holders is formally required under which part for repair stations?

14 CFR Part 39
14 CFR Part 65
14 CFR Part 145 (Correct answer)
14 CFR Part 43

Correct answer: 14 CFR Part 145

The FAA has implemented SMS requirements for repair stations under 14 CFR Part 145, requiring formal hazard identification and risk management processes.

Question 67: What does 'on-condition maintenance' mean in an aircraft maintenance program?

Maintenance performed only after an accident
Maintenance deferred until the aircraft reaches its TBO
Maintenance performed on a fixed time schedule
Maintenance based on regular inspection to determine if an item is still serviceable (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintenance based on regular inspection to determine if an item is still serviceable

On-condition maintenance relies on periodic inspection results to determine serviceability rather than fixed time or cycle limits.

Question 68: An ASI identifies a finding where a Part 121 operator's flight dispatch procedures have a gap that could allow a flight to depart with an inoperative item not covered by the MEL. This is BEST described as:

An isolated human error by the dispatcher
A systemic process deficiency in the operator's dispatch/MEL management system (Correct answer)
A minor administrative error with no safety significance
An airworthiness directive non-compliance requiring immediate grounding

Correct answer: A systemic process deficiency in the operator's dispatch/MEL management system

A procedural gap that allows non-compliant operations is a systemic deficiency rooted in the operator's management processes, not a one-time individual error.

Question 69: What is 'organizational accident theory' (Reason's Swiss Cheese Model) and how does it apply to ASI investigations?

It recognizes that accidents result from alignment of latent organizational failures and active errors through multiple defensive layers (Correct answer)
It holds that accidents are caused solely by front-line operator error
It is a statistical model used to predict accident probability
It applies only to military aviation accidents

Correct answer: It recognizes that accidents result from alignment of latent organizational failures and active errors through multiple defensive layers

James Reason's model holds that accidents occur when latent organizational failures (training gaps, inadequate procedures, poor culture) align with active failures, creating pathways through multiple defensive barriers.

Question 70: An ASI is the first federal official on the scene of a general aviation accident in a remote field. According to NTSB Part 830, what is the most critical initial responsibility regarding the aircraft wreckage?

To ensure the wreckage and associated records are preserved and protected from disturbance or further damage. (Correct answer)
To document the site with photographs before moving components to a secure hangar.
To begin interviewing witnesses to develop an initial theory of the cause.
To recover the aircraft logbooks and flight recorders for immediate FAA analysis.

Correct answer: To ensure the wreckage and associated records are preserved and protected from disturbance or further damage.

NTSB Part 830.10 states that the operator is responsible for preserving wreckage, cargo, mail, and records. However, an FAA official on-site would enforce this and take necessary actions to protect the scene until the NTSB takes official custody. Disturbing the wreckage is prohibited except to remove persons, protect the wreckage from further damage, or protect the public from injury. The ASI's primary role is to ensure the integrity of the evidence for the NTSB's investigation.

Question 71: An aircraft's Airworthiness Directive (AD) requires repetitive compliance. The maintenance record entry must include which of the following?

The next scheduled maintenance interval only
Only the date and aircraft total time
A signed statement from the aircraft owner only
The AD number, revision date, method of compliance, and return-to-service statement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The AD number, revision date, method of compliance, and return-to-service statement

FAR 43.9 requires the AD number, revision, compliance method, and a return-to-service statement in the maintenance record.

Question 72: In SMS risk assessment, 'risk tolerance' is primarily defined by:

The FAA's published minimum safety standards only
Individual pilot decision-making during flight operations
Insurance company risk thresholds
The organization's acceptable risk criteria documented in its SMS (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The organization's acceptable risk criteria documented in its SMS

Each organization must establish and document its own risk tolerance criteria within its SMS, though these must align with regulatory minimum standards.

Question 73: In aviation manufacturing, what is the primary function of Statistical Process Control (SPC)?

To estimate the statistical probability of in-service part failures
To calculate the optimal number of inspectors needed on a production line
To control the distribution of production workload across multiple shifts
To monitor manufacturing processes using statistical methods to detect variation and prevent defects (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To monitor manufacturing processes using statistical methods to detect variation and prevent defects

SPC uses statistical methods to monitor and control manufacturing processes, detecting variation trends that could lead to non-conforming parts before defects occur.

Question 74: When an ASI evaluates an SMS effectiveness report, which finding would MOST indicate a mature and effective SMS?

All safety training completed on schedule
High volume of voluntary safety reports with evidence of systemic corrective actions (Correct answer)
Zero accidents reported in the past year
No safety deviations found during internal audits

Correct answer: High volume of voluntary safety reports with evidence of systemic corrective actions

A high volume of voluntary reports combined with evidence of systemic fixes demonstrates both a strong safety culture and effective use of the SMS feedback loop.

Question 75: Under FAA SMS requirements, what is the primary purpose of a Safety Risk Management (SRM) process?

To document post-accident corrective actions
To identify hazards and assess risks before implementing changes (Correct answer)
To train employees on emergency procedures
To assign blame after accidents

Correct answer: To identify hazards and assess risks before implementing changes

SRM is a proactive process used to identify hazards, analyze their risk, and implement controls before changes are made to operations or systems.

Question 76: Under 14 CFR 91.413, Mode C transponders used in controlled airspace must be inspected and tested within the preceding:

24 calendar months (Correct answer)
36 calendar months
12 calendar months
100 flight hours

Correct answer: 24 calendar months

14 CFR 91.413 requires transponders to be tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months.

Question 77: During a ramp inspection, an ASI finds that an aircraft has not complied with a mandatory Airworthiness Directive (AD) within the specified timeframe. What is the immediate airworthiness status of this aircraft?

Airworthy, but with operational limitations
Conditionally airworthy until the next scheduled inspection
Airworthy, pending an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) application
Unairworthy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Unairworthy

Failure to comply with an Airworthiness Directive (AD) renders an aircraft unairworthy. ADs are legally enforceable rules issued under 14 CFR Part 39 to correct an unsafe condition. The aircraft cannot be legally operated until the requirements of the AD are met and properly documented. Applying for an AMOC does not grant airworthiness; the AMOC must be approved first.

Question 78: What is the function of the Aviation Safety Inspector's use of PTRS (Program Tracking and Reporting Subsystem) after completing an accident-related surveillance activity?

To notify the NTSB of FAA findings
To document the activity, findings, and any enforcement actions for FAA oversight tracking (Correct answer)
To communicate directly with the operator's safety manager
To generate airworthiness directives automatically

Correct answer: To document the activity, findings, and any enforcement actions for FAA oversight tracking

PTRS is the FAA's system for recording inspector surveillance activities, findings, and enforcement actions, creating an auditable record of oversight activities.

Question 79: Which tool does the FAA use to track safety trends identified from accident and incident investigations?

SPAS (Safety Performance Analysis System) (Correct answer)
ATOS (Air Transportation Oversight System)
ASAP (Aviation Safety Action Program)
CAST (Commercial Aviation Safety Team) data analysis

Correct answer: SPAS (Safety Performance Analysis System)

SPAS aggregates safety data from multiple sources including accident/incident investigations to identify trends and target FAA safety oversight resources.

Question 80: An avionics technician replaces a weather radar control panel with a unit from a different manufacturer. Without additional approval, this action most likely constitutes:

An authorized parts substitution under 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix A
A major alteration requiring FAA approval if no approved data exists (Correct answer)
A minor repair requiring only a logbook entry
Preventive maintenance the pilot may perform

Correct answer: A major alteration requiring FAA approval if no approved data exists

Substituting a control panel from a different manufacturer without approved data constitutes a major alteration requiring FAA approval.

Question 81: An aircraft mechanic discovers a crack in a primary structural member. What is the correct initial action?

Apply stop-drill and return to service
Monitor the crack at next 100-hour inspection
Document and return to service if below manufacturer limits
Remove the aircraft from service and consult approved repair data (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Remove the aircraft from service and consult approved repair data

Cracks in primary structural members require removal from service and evaluation against approved repair data before any return to service.

Question 82: Which document defines the acceptable means of compliance for an aircraft's continued airworthiness?

The aircraft logbook entries
The Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH)
The Certificate of Registration
The Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM) approved by the FAA (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM) approved by the FAA

The FAA-approved Aircraft Maintenance Manual provides the standard acceptable means of compliance for continued airworthiness.

Question 83: Under SMS, the 'safety policy' must be signed by which individual?

The accountable executive (Correct answer)
The FAA Flight Standards District Office manager
The chief inspector
The lead ASI

Correct answer: The accountable executive

The safety policy must be authorized and signed by the accountable executive to demonstrate top-level organizational commitment to safety.

Question 84: An Aviation Safety Inspector is reviewing the maintenance records for an aircraft. For which of the following items must the records be retained and transferred with the aircraft when it is sold?

Records of preventive maintenance performed by the owner/operator.
The current status of life-limited parts. (Correct answer)
Records of compliance with a non-recurring Airworthiness Directive (AD).
Records of the last 100-hour inspection.

Correct answer: The current status of life-limited parts.

According to 14 CFR § 91.417(a)(2), records detailing the current status of life-limited parts of the airframe, each engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance must be retained and transferred with the aircraft upon its sale. Records of the last 100-hour inspection and preventive maintenance are typically kept for one year or until the work is repeated or superseded.

Question 85: What is the significance of an aircraft's operating limitations document?

It applies only to commercial operations and not private flights
It is a suggested guideline that pilots may deviate from with captain's discretion
It is a legally binding document issued with the airworthiness certificate that defines the operating envelope of the aircraft (Correct answer)
It is superseded by manufacturer's pilot operating handbooks in all cases

Correct answer: It is a legally binding document issued with the airworthiness certificate that defines the operating envelope of the aircraft

Operating limitations are issued as part of the airworthiness certification process and are legally binding, defining the conditions under which the aircraft is approved to fly.

Question 86: What is meant by 'delegation of authority' in the context of aircraft type certification?

The FAA's formal authorization for manufacturers or designees to perform certain certification functions on behalf of the FAA (Correct answer)
The ICAO's authorization for member states to accept each other's type certificates
A manufacturer's internal process for assigning certification tasks to engineering teams
The transfer of ownership of a type certificate from one manufacturer to another

Correct answer: The FAA's formal authorization for manufacturers or designees to perform certain certification functions on behalf of the FAA

Delegation of authority refers to the FAA formally authorizing approved individuals or organizations (ODA, DAS, etc.) to perform specific certification activities on the FAA's behalf.

Question 87: Under 14 CFR Part 121, which document authorizes an air carrier to defer inoperative equipment and continue flight operations under specified conditions?

Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) Limitations section
Airworthiness Directive compliance record
General Operations Manual (GOM)
Minimum Equipment List (MEL) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

The FAA-approved MEL specifies conditions and repair intervals under which an aircraft may operate with certain inoperative items.

Question 88: An ADS-B Out system fails the required self-test during preflight. Under 14 CFR 91.227, the aircraft may:

Operate normally if the failure is logged in the maintenance records
Operate in Class A airspace only
Not operate in airspace where ADS-B Out is required without an ATC waiver (Correct answer)
Continue normal operations if Mode C transponder is functional

Correct answer: Not operate in airspace where ADS-B Out is required without an ATC waiver

Under 14 CFR 91.227, aircraft with inoperative ADS-B Out may not operate in ADS-B required airspace without an ATC waiver or deviation authorization.

Question 89: What is the primary purpose of the Compliance and Enforcement Bulletin (CEB) system used by ASIs?

To provide policy guidance on how to apply compliance and enforcement tools (Correct answer)
To track the number of violations per inspector district
To notify the public of enforcement actions taken
To issue fines directly to certificate holders

Correct answer: To provide policy guidance on how to apply compliance and enforcement tools

CEBs provide FAA inspectors with policy guidance and direction on applying compliance and enforcement tools consistently across the agency.

Question 90: Which national database is used to report and analyze wildlife strikes with aircraft in the United States?

SAFO Hazard Reporting System
FAA Wildlife Strike Database (Correct answer)
NTSB Accident/Incident Database
ASIAS (Aviation Safety Information Analysis and Sharing)

Correct answer: FAA Wildlife Strike Database

The FAA Wildlife Strike Database collects voluntary and mandatory strike reports from pilots, air carriers, and airports to support trend analysis and mitigation programs.

Question 91: What document is required to be completed when an avionics modification is made that affects the aircraft's type design?

FAA Form 337 (Major Repair and Alteration) (Correct answer)
FAA Form 8100-9
FAA Form 8050-1
FAA Form 8130-3

Correct answer: FAA Form 337 (Major Repair and Alteration)

FAA Form 337 must be completed for major repairs or alterations to avionics systems that affect the aircraft's type design.

Question 92: During a ramp inspection, an ASI discovers an aircraft operating under Part 91 with an inoperative ELT battery that has exceeded its expiration date. What is the correct regulatory citation?

FAR 43.15
FAR 91.207 (Correct answer)
FAR 91.413
FAR 91.409

Correct answer: FAR 91.207

FAR 91.207 governs ELT requirements including battery currency for aircraft operated under Part 91.

Question 93: During an SMS evaluation, an ASI finds that safety performance indicators (SPIs) have not been updated in two years. Which SMS pillar is most deficient?

Safety Promotion
Safety Risk Management
Safety Policy and Objectives
Safety Assurance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Safety Assurance

Safety Assurance requires continuous monitoring of SPIs and SPTs to evaluate whether safety performance objectives are being met.

Question 94: What is the purpose of a 'suspected unapproved part' (SUP) report filed by an ASI?

To request an emergency AD from the FAA
To document and trigger investigation of a part that may lack proper FAA approval or traceability (Correct answer)
To ground all aircraft using that manufacturer's parts
To initiate a pilot certificate action

Correct answer: To document and trigger investigation of a part that may lack proper FAA approval or traceability

A SUP report documents a part that lacks proper FAA approval documentation or traceability and triggers an investigation through the FAA's SUP program.

Question 95: Which of the following tasks is considered preventive maintenance that can be performed by a person who holds at least a private pilot certificate on an aircraft owned or operated by them, provided it is not used in air carrier service?

An annual inspection under Part 91.
The repair of a main landing gear strut.
Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter keys. (Correct answer)
The overhaul of a propeller governor.

Correct answer: Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter keys.

14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A, Section (c) lists the tasks that are considered preventive maintenance. Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter keys is explicitly listed as a preventive maintenance task that a pilot can perform on their own aircraft, as long as it does not involve complex assembly operations. The other options are considered either major repairs or required inspections that demand a higher level of certification to perform.

Question 96: What is a major focus of the FAA's role in aviation safety?

Scheduling airline flights.
Enforcing aviation safety regulations and promoting safe flying practices (Correct answer)
Monitoring international air traffic.
Developing new aircraft designs.

Correct answer: Enforcing aviation safety regulations and promoting safe flying practices

The FAA's core mission in aviation safety is twofold: to enforce the Federal Aviation Regulations to ensure compliance and to actively promote safe flying practices across the entire aviation industry. This involves oversight, investigation, and educational initiatives to maintain high safety standards.

Question 97: What is the primary purpose of a Conformity Inspection during the type certification process?

To validate that avionics software meets DO-178C requirements
To check that the production facility meets OSHA safety requirements
To verify the prototype conforms to the design data submitted for type certification (Correct answer)
To confirm that the aircraft meets customer delivery specifications

Correct answer: To verify the prototype conforms to the design data submitted for type certification

A Conformity Inspection verifies that the test article or prototype physically conforms to the engineering drawings and specifications submitted for type certification.

Question 98: An aircraft is found to have a cracked engine mount that has been welded by a local welding shop without FAA oversight. What makes this repair most problematic from an airworthiness standpoint?

The weld repair was a major repair on a primary structure performed without approved data and by an unauthorized person, violating Part 43 (Correct answer)
The cost of the weld repair must be reported to the FAA if it exceeds $10,000
The problem is only procedural — if the weld meets structural standards, the aircraft is airworthy
The repair required a Form 337 but the shop was not authorized to prepare one

Correct answer: The weld repair was a major repair on a primary structure performed without approved data and by an unauthorized person, violating Part 43

Engine mount repairs are major repairs on a critical primary structure and must be performed by authorized personnel using approved data per 14 CFR Part 43.

Question 99: How does the FAA define a 'wildlife strike' for mandatory reporting purposes?

Any bird ingested by a turbine engine causing performance loss
Only collisions that result in documented aircraft structural damage
Any animal observed within the airport perimeter fence
A collision between an aircraft in flight or on the ground and any wildlife, whether or not damage occurs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A collision between an aircraft in flight or on the ground and any wildlife, whether or not damage occurs

The FAA's broad definition captures all wildlife-aircraft collisions regardless of damage outcome, enabling comprehensive trend data to support safety improvements.

Question 100: Which document must a certificated repair station reference to perform a repair on a specific aircraft component?

Insurance policy
Previous inspection logbook entry
Owner's manual
Approved data such as AMM, STC, or FAA-approved engineering order (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Approved data such as AMM, STC, or FAA-approved engineering order

Repairs must be performed using approved data including the Aircraft Maintenance Manual, STCs, or FAA-approved engineering orders.

Aviation Safety Inspector (ASI) Exam

Certifies individuals to perform safety oversight functions for the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), ensuring compliance with aviation regulations and standards.

100

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

70%

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