AORN Anesthesia Basics 2 ā Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which anesthetic agent is most commonly associated with malignant hyperthermia when used in susceptible patients?
- Propofol
- Succinylcholine (Correct answer)
- Ketamine
- Midazolam
Correct answer: Succinylcholine
Succinylcholine (and volatile inhalation agents) are the primary triggers of malignant hyperthermia in genetically susceptible individuals.
Question 2: The perioperative nurse notes a patient's SpO2 is 94% on room air pre-operatively. What is the most appropriate initial action?
- Proceed with the surgical prep immediately
- Notify the anesthesia provider and document the finding (Correct answer)
- Administer supplemental oxygen without notifying anyone
- Cancel the surgery without consulting the surgeon
Correct answer: Notify the anesthesia provider and document the finding
A SpO2 of 94% is below the normal threshold and must be reported to the anesthesia provider for evaluation before proceeding.
Question 3: What does the term 'balanced anesthesia' refer to?
- Using only one drug to achieve all anesthetic goals
- Combining multiple agents to achieve analgesia, amnesia, muscle relaxation, and unconsciousness (Correct answer)
- Balancing anesthetic depth with patient blood pressure
- Using equal doses of opioids and benzodiazepines
Correct answer: Combining multiple agents to achieve analgesia, amnesia, muscle relaxation, and unconsciousness
Balanced anesthesia uses a combination of drugsāeach targeting a specific componentāto minimize side effects while achieving all desired anesthetic effects.
Question 4: Which reversal agent is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines administered during procedural sedation?
- Naloxone
- Neostigmine
- Flumazenil (Correct answer)
- Sugammadex
Correct answer: Flumazenil
Flumazenil competitively antagonizes benzodiazepine receptors and is used to reverse benzodiazepine-induced sedation.
Question 5: A patient undergoing regional anesthesia reports sudden dizziness, tinnitus, and a metallic taste in the mouth. What should the perioperative nurse suspect?
- Vasovagal syncope
- Hypoglycemia
- Local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) (Correct answer)
- Anaphylaxis
Correct answer: Local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST)
These are classic early CNS signs of local anesthetic systemic toxicity, which can progress to seizures and cardiovascular collapse if untreated.
Question 6: What is the primary purpose of pre-oxygenation (denitrogenation) before general anesthesia induction?
- To reduce patient anxiety before losing consciousness
- To extend the safe apnea period by increasing oxygen reserves in the lungs (Correct answer)
- To prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting
- To speed up the induction of anesthesia
Correct answer: To extend the safe apnea period by increasing oxygen reserves in the lungs
Pre-oxygenation replaces nitrogen in the FRC with oxygen, extending the time before desaturation occurs during apnea at induction.
Question 7: Which monitoring parameter is considered the gold standard for confirming correct endotracheal tube placement?
- Chest auscultation
- Chest rise visualization
- End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) capnography (Correct answer)
- Pulse oximetry
Correct answer: End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) capnography
Continuous ETCO2 waveform capnography is the gold standard for confirming and monitoring endotracheal tube placement throughout the procedure.
Which anesthetic agent is most commonly associated with malignant hyperthermia when used in susceptible patients?