ABPN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ABPN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A structured tool used specifically to assess obsessive-compulsive symptom severity is the: → Y-BOCS
2. A patient on lithium develops tremor, polyuria, and polydipsia. What is the MOST appropriate next step? → Check serum lithium level
3. Clonidine, sometimes known as catapres, is an option for treating ADHD when stimulant medication causes tics to increase. → True
4. What approximate percentage of patients who experience a single unprovoked seizure will have a recurrence within 2 years? → 40-50%
5. A cherry-red spot on the macula is associated with which condition? → Tay-Sachs disease
6. First-line pharmacologic treatment for generalized anxiety disorder is typically which class? → SSRIs or SNRIs
7. What is the legal standard used in most US states for civil involuntary psychiatric commitment? → Clear and convincing evidence
8. A patient on phenelzine (MAOI) eats aged cheese and develops a hypertensive crisis. Which mechanism explains this reaction? → Tyramine displaces norepinephrine causing massive sympathetic discharge
9. A patient cannot abduct the eye on the affected side and reports horizontal diplopia worse at distance. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected? → Abducens (CN VI)
10. Which of the following best defines a hallucination? → A perception without an external stimulus
11. Which artery occlusion most commonly causes contralateral face and arm weakness with aphasia? → Middle cerebral artery
12. A psychiatrist evaluating a defendant for competency to stand trial concludes the defendant is incompetent. What is the MOST typical next legal step? → The defendant is sent for competency restoration treatment
13. What is the standard duration of an ABPN certification cycle before continuing certification requirements reset? → 10 years
14. A tuning fork placed on the mastoid then near the ear canal (Rinne test) normally shows: → Air conduction louder than bone
15. A patient with delayed sleep phase disorder characteristically shows what sleep pattern? → Falls asleep and wakes up much later than desired but sleeps a normal duration
16. Which of the following descriptions of Neurontin, or gabapentin is NOT TRUE? → All of the above.
17. Which ABPN subspecialty is MOST relevant for a neurologist treating patients with epilepsy-associated psychiatric comorbidities and behavioral changes? → Behavioral neurology and neuropsychiatry
18. Which medication requires regular white blood cell monitoring due to agranulocytosis risk? → Clozapine
19. Which neurotransmitter is most implicated in the positive symptoms of schizophrenia? → Dopamine
20. The ABPN's Part I written examination for psychiatry residents PRIMARILY tests which type of knowledge? → Medical knowledge through multiple-choice questions
21. Which laboratory or clinical step is most important before attributing new psychiatric symptoms to a primary mental disorder? → Ruling out medical and substance-induced causes
22. Serotonin syndrome is best distinguished from NMS by the presence of: → Hyperreflexia and clonus
23. Which receptors are inhibited by antipsychotics of the second generation? → D2 and 5HT2
24. Which is a prerequisite for taking the ABPN certification examination in psychiatry? → Completion of an ACGME-accredited psychiatry residency
25. When assessing suicide risk, which of the following is considered a protective factor? → Strong social support and religious beliefs
26. A 35-year-old patient with bipolar I disorder is started on lithium. Which baseline laboratory test is MOST important before initiating therapy? → Renal function (BMP/creatinine) and thyroid function
27. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? → Avolition
28. A 55-year-old with a history of alcohol use disorder presents with ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and confusion. What is the MOST likely diagnosis and its cause? → Wernicke encephalopathy due to thiamine (B1) deficiency
29. What Methylphenidate mediation has an osmotic release and lasts for 12 hours? → Concerta
30. Which drug is used to reverse acute benzodiazepine overdose? → Flumazenil