ABPN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ABPN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A structured tool used specifically to assess obsessive-compulsive symptom severity is the: → Y-BOCS
2. A patient on lithium develops tremor, polyuria, and polydipsia. What is the MOST appropriate next step? → Check serum lithium level
3. Clonidine, sometimes known as catapres, is an option for treating ADHD when stimulant medication causes tics to increase. → True
4. What approximate percentage of patients who experience a single unprovoked seizure will have a recurrence within 2 years? → 40-50%
5. First-line pharmacologic treatment for generalized anxiety disorder is typically which class? → SSRIs or SNRIs
6. What is the legal standard used in most US states for civil involuntary psychiatric commitment? → Clear and convincing evidence
7. A patient on phenelzine (MAOI) eats aged cheese and develops a hypertensive crisis. Which mechanism explains this reaction? → Tyramine displaces norepinephrine causing massive sympathetic discharge
8. Which of the following best defines a hallucination? → A perception without an external stimulus
9. Which artery occlusion most commonly causes contralateral face and arm weakness with aphasia? → Middle cerebral artery
10. A psychiatrist evaluating a defendant for competency to stand trial concludes the defendant is incompetent. What is the MOST typical next legal step? → The defendant is sent for competency restoration treatment
11. What is the standard duration of an ABPN certification cycle before continuing certification requirements reset? → 10 years
12. A patient with delayed sleep phase disorder characteristically shows what sleep pattern? → Falls asleep and wakes up much later than desired but sleeps a normal duration
13. Which of the following descriptions of Neurontin, or gabapentin is NOT TRUE? → All of the above.
14. Which ABPN subspecialty is MOST relevant for a neurologist treating patients with epilepsy-associated psychiatric comorbidities and behavioral changes? → Behavioral neurology and neuropsychiatry
15. Which medication requires regular white blood cell monitoring due to agranulocytosis risk? → Clozapine
16. The ABPN's Part I written examination for psychiatry residents PRIMARILY tests which type of knowledge? → Medical knowledge through multiple-choice questions
17. Serotonin syndrome is best distinguished from NMS by the presence of: → Hyperreflexia and clonus
18. Which receptors are inhibited by antipsychotics of the second generation? → D2 and 5HT2
19. Which is a prerequisite for taking the ABPN certification examination in psychiatry? → Completion of an ACGME-accredited psychiatry residency
20. A 35-year-old patient with bipolar I disorder is started on lithium. Which baseline laboratory test is MOST important before initiating therapy? → Renal function (BMP/creatinine) and thyroid function
21. A 55-year-old with a history of alcohol use disorder presents with ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and confusion. What is the MOST likely diagnosis and its cause? → Wernicke encephalopathy due to thiamine (B1) deficiency
22. What Methylphenidate mediation has an osmotic release and lasts for 12 hours? → Concerta
23. Which drug is used to reverse acute benzodiazepine overdose? → Flumazenil
24. A woman with epilepsy is planning a pregnancy. Which antiepileptic drug carries the highest risk of major congenital malformations and cognitive teratogenicity? → Valproate
25. Which body accredits the residency and fellowship training programs whose completion the ABPN requires for eligibility? → ACGME
26. What is the recommended FIRST-LINE psychotherapy for separation anxiety disorder in children? → Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
27. A patient presents with sudden right-sided weakness and expressive aphasia. Which arterial territory is most likely involved? → Left middle cerebral artery
28. What is the mortality rate of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome if left untreated? → 20%
29. A forensic psychiatrist is asked to evaluate a criminal defendant's mental state at the time of the offense. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this evaluation? → To assess criminal responsibility (sanity) for legal proceedings
30. What is the most common metabolic cause of neonatal seizures? → Hypoglycemia