Ambulatory Care Chronic Disease Management Flashcards
7 cards from real Ambulatory Care Test practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Ambulatory Care Chronic Disease Management flashcards as text
Which SGLT2 inhibitor has FDA approval for reducing the risk of hospitalization for heart failure in patients with type 2 diabetes?
Answer: Empagliflozin
Empagliflozin (and other SGLT2 inhibitors such as dapagliflozin) have demonstrated significant reductions in heart failure hospitalization and are FDA-approved for this indication.
A patient with CKD stage 4 has a hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL with low reticulocyte count and normal iron stores. The MOST likely cause is:
Answer: Anemia of chronic kidney disease (erythropoietin deficiency)
CKD-associated anemia is primarily caused by insufficient erythropoietin production by damaged kidneys, resulting in normocytic, normochromic anemia with low reticulocyte count.
Which class of antihypertensive is CONTRAINDICATED in a patient with bilateral renal artery stenosis?
Answer: ACE inhibitors
ACE inhibitors (and ARBs) are contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis because they block the compensatory efferent arteriole constriction, causing a precipitous drop in GFR.
A patient with gout has a serum uric acid of 9.8 mg/dL and two flares in the past year. After flare resolution, which urate-lowering therapy is FIRST-LINE?
Answer: Allopurinol
Allopurinol is the first-line urate-lowering therapy for chronic gout management; it is initiated after acute flare resolution to avoid prolonging the acute attack.
Which finding on a diabetic foot exam indicates the HIGHEST risk for future ulceration and amputation?
Answer: Loss of protective sensation to 10-g monofilament
Loss of protective sensation detected by 10-g monofilament testing is the strongest independent predictor of diabetic foot ulceration and subsequent amputation.
A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. According to guidelines, which intervention is MOST indicated to reduce stroke risk?
Answer: Oral anticoagulation with a DOAC
A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 in males or ≥3 in females indicates a high stroke risk, and oral anticoagulation with a DOAC is strongly recommended over antiplatelet therapy.
Which counseling point is MOST important for a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension who refuses medication?
Answer: Sodium restriction to less than 2,300 mg per day
Sodium restriction to less than 2,300 mg/day (ideally 1,500 mg/day) is the most evidence-based dietary intervention for lowering blood pressure in hypertensive patients.