FAA Airframe Mechanic Written Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is the minimum edge distance for a rivet hole measured from the center of the hole to the edge of the sheet?
- 2 times the rivet diameter
- 1 times the rivet diameter
- 1.5 times the rivet diameter (Correct answer)
- 2.5 times the rivet diameter
Correct answer: 1.5 times the rivet diameter
The minimum edge distance is 1.5 times the rivet diameter to prevent sheet tearing and ensure structural integrity.
Question 2: What is the purpose of a fuel cross-feed system on a multi-engine aircraft?
- To allow fuel flow from one wing tank to the other or to feed any engine from any tank (Correct answer)
- To boost fuel pressure during high-power takeoff
- To remove dissolved air from fuel lines
- To return excess fuel to the main tank after engine shutdown
Correct answer: To allow fuel flow from one wing tank to the other or to feed any engine from any tank
A cross-feed system allows fuel to be transferred between tanks for lateral balance or to supply any engine from the opposite wing tank in the event of a fuel pump failure.
Question 3: A 'tension head' (100° countersunk) rivet is used instead of a universal head rivet primarily when:
- The repair is in a high-vibration area
- The rivet must carry shear loads only
- The sheet thickness exceeds 0.080 inches
- A flush surface is required on the exterior skin for aerodynamic smoothness (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A flush surface is required on the exterior skin for aerodynamic smoothness
Flush (countersunk) rivets are used on exterior aerodynamic surfaces to minimize drag by maintaining a smooth, unbroken skin surface.
Question 4: What is the role of the aircraft safety management system?
- To monitor passenger comfort.
- To identify and manage safety risks (Correct answer)
- To calculate fuel efficiency.
- To increase in-flight entertainment.
Correct answer: To identify and manage safety risks
An aircraft Safety Management System (SMS) provides a systematic framework for managing safety within an organization. Its core role is to proactively identify potential hazards, assess associated risks, and implement effective mitigation strategies to reduce the likelihood and severity of accidents. This continuous process fosters a strong safety culture and improves overall operational safety.
Question 5: Which component prevents a flight control cable from jumping off a pulley during slack conditions?
- Fairlead bracket
- Swaged terminal
- Turnbuckle barrel
- Cable guard or guard pin (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cable guard or guard pin
Cable guards (guard pins or keeper plates) retain the cable on the pulley groove if tension momentarily goes slack.
Question 6: Which rivet material is required when repairing magnesium alloy aircraft structure to prevent galvanic corrosion?
- Magnesium or aluminum 5056 alloy rivets (Correct answer)
- Monel rivets
- 2117-T4 aluminum rivets
- Stainless steel rivets
Correct answer: Magnesium or aluminum 5056 alloy rivets
5056 aluminum rivets must be used with magnesium structure because they are galvanically compatible; other aluminum or steel rivets cause severe galvanic corrosion.
Question 7: During horizontal tail assembly, the stabilizer incidence angle is found to be 0.5° more than specified. What is the most appropriate corrective action?
- File a maintenance record and leave the incidence as found
- Adjust the stabilizer attach bolts to shim the leading edge up or down as needed (Correct answer)
- Replace the horizontal stabilizer
- Adjust the elevator trim tab to compensate
Correct answer: Adjust the stabilizer attach bolts to shim the leading edge up or down as needed
Small incidence errors are corrected by adding or removing shims at the stabilizer attachment points to achieve the manufacturer's specified angle.
Question 8: A technician is performing a flush patch repair on a pressurized fuselage skin. How should the thickness of the doubler and the filler (patch) relate to the original skin thickness?
- The doubler should be one gauge thicker, and the filler should be the same thickness as the original skin. (Correct answer)
- The doubler and filler should both be the same thickness as the original skin.
- The doubler and filler should both be one gauge thicker than the original skin.
- The doubler should be the same thickness, and the filler should be one gauge thinner than the original skin.
Correct answer: The doubler should be one gauge thicker, and the filler should be the same thickness as the original skin.
For a flush patch repair, the filler plug must be of the same gauge and material as the original skin to maintain a smooth surface. The doubler, which provides the structural reinforcement from the inside, should be made of material one gauge heavier (thicker) than the original skin.
Question 9: What does the term 'unusable fuel' mean in the context of an aircraft fuel system?
- Fuel that has been contaminated and cannot be used safely
- Aviation fuel that has exceeded its storage shelf life
- Fuel remaining in lines after the engine is shut down
- Fuel that cannot be safely used in flight due to system design limitations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Fuel that cannot be safely used in flight due to system design limitations
Unusable fuel is the quantity that cannot be safely delivered to the engine in all normal flight attitudes due to outlet location and tank geometry.
Question 10: What is the minimum color specification for safety wire used on aircraft engine hardware?
- Copper wire, which is the industry standard for most fasteners
- Any stainless steel wire regardless of diameter
- Galvanized steel wire, which is standard for non-critical applications
- Monel or stainless steel wire of the diameter specified in the applicable maintenance manual (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Monel or stainless steel wire of the diameter specified in the applicable maintenance manual
Safety wire must be made of Monel or stainless steel of the diameter specified in the applicable maintenance manual or standard practice for the application.
Question 11: When performing a landing gear retraction test, the aircraft should be placed on jacks in a specific configuration. What is a critical reason for this procedure?
- To simulate the air loads that the gear experiences in flight.
- To allow for easier access to the brake system for inspection.
- To reduce the hydraulic pressure required to cycle the gear.
- To ensure the squat switches are in the 'in-flight' or 'unloaded' position. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To ensure the squat switches are in the 'in-flight' or 'unloaded' position.
Placing an aircraft on jacks allows the landing gear struts to fully extend, releasing the compression on the squat switches (weight-on-wheels switches). This moves the switches into their 'in-flight' configuration, which closes the electrical circuit and allows the landing gear retraction system to be operated from the cockpit for testing purposes.
Question 12: Which meteorological condition is most likely to produce clear (glaze) ice on an airframe?
- Moderate turbulence inside a towering cumulus
- Freezing drizzle with large supercooled water droplets just below 0°C (Correct answer)
- Dry snow with OAT around -5°C
- Light snow at temperatures below -20°C
Correct answer: Freezing drizzle with large supercooled water droplets just below 0°C
Freezing drizzle contains large supercooled droplets that spread and freeze slowly on impact, forming a clear, dense glaze ice layer.
Question 13: When assembling a quick-disconnect fitting on a flight control rod end, the technician must verify that the safety pin:
- Can be removed and reinserted with one hand in the installed position
- Is installed in the backup hole only if the primary hole is occupied
- Is only partially inserted until the first ground run confirms proper operation
- Is fully seated, passes through both sides of the fitting, and is retained by its clip or locking feature (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Is fully seated, passes through both sides of the fitting, and is retained by its clip or locking feature
Quick-disconnect safety pins must be fully inserted through both sides of the fitting and secured with their locking clip to prevent inadvertent disconnection.
Question 14: When working near aircraft fuel systems, which type of fire extinguisher is most appropriate to have immediately available?
- Class B (CO2 or dry chemical) extinguisher (Correct answer)
- Class C (halon) extinguisher for electrical fires only
- Class D extinguisher for metal fires
- Class A (water) extinguisher
Correct answer: Class B (CO2 or dry chemical) extinguisher
Class B fire extinguishers, which include CO2 and dry chemical types, are designed for flammable liquid fires such as fuel and are the appropriate choice near aircraft fuel systems.
Question 15: A technician is inspecting a properly tensioned turnbuckle in a primary flight control system and observes four threads are exposed between the barrel and the cable end fitting. What is the correct course of action?
- This is acceptable as long as the safety wire can be installed correctly.
- Tighten the turnbuckle until no threads are exposed to maximize engagement.
- Replace the turnbuckle with one of a more appropriate length. (Correct answer)
- Document the finding and re-inspect at the next 100-hour inspection.
Correct answer: Replace the turnbuckle with one of a more appropriate length.
According to standard aircraft maintenance practices (such as those in AC 43.13-1B), no more than three threads should be exposed on either end of a turnbuckle barrel. Exposing four or more threads indicates insufficient thread engagement, which compromises the strength of the connection. The correct action is to use a turnbuckle of the proper length to achieve the correct cable tension while ensuring adequate thread engagement.
Question 16: During inspection of a fabric-covered aircraft, the punch test is used to evaluate fabric condition. What does a passing result indicate?
- The fabric has been properly doped within the last two years
- The fabric is free of all mildew and UV damage
- The fabric meets the minimum tensile strength specified in FAA-approved data (Correct answer)
- The fabric color has not faded beyond limits
Correct answer: The fabric meets the minimum tensile strength specified in FAA-approved data
The punch test estimates residual tensile strength of aircraft fabric; a result meeting or exceeding the FAA-approved minimum confirms airworthy fabric condition.
Question 17: Pascal's Law is a fundamental principle governing hydraulic systems. Which of the following statements best describes this law?
- Fluid pressure is directly proportional to the fluid's velocity.
- The force exerted by a fluid is equal to its mass times its acceleration.
- Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted undiminished to every portion of the fluid and the walls of the containing vessel. (Correct answer)
- For every action in a fluid system, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Correct answer: Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted undiminished to every portion of the fluid and the walls of the containing vessel.
Pascal's Law states that when pressure is applied to a confined, incompressible fluid, the pressure is transmitted equally in all directions throughout the fluid. This principle allows hydraulic systems to multiply force.
Question 18: The 'neutral axis' of a sheet metal bend is important because:
- It is the surface that must face outward on all formed parts
- It indicates the location where the bend radius is measured
- It defines the maximum bend angle before cracking occurs
- It is the layer that experiences neither compression nor tension and has no change in length (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It is the layer that experiences neither compression nor tension and has no change in length
The neutral axis is the theoretical line within the material that is neither stretched nor compressed during bending, and its location determines bend allowance.
Question 19: When performing a repair on aircraft skin using a flush patch, the patch material must be:
- One gauge thicker than the original to compensate for the cutout
- A harder alloy than the original to provide additional strength
- The same material type and temper as the original skin (Correct answer)
- Clad on one side only, with the clad side facing outward
Correct answer: The same material type and temper as the original skin
Repair patches must match the original material specification (alloy and temper) to maintain the structural and corrosion properties of the original design.
Question 20: Which type of corrosion appears as a white or gray powdery deposit on aluminum aircraft skin?
- Galvanic corrosion
- Surface oxidation (white corrosion) (Correct answer)
- Intergranular corrosion
- Stress corrosion cracking
Correct answer: Surface oxidation (white corrosion)
White or gray powdery deposits on aluminum are characteristic of surface oxidation, the most common and easily treated form of aluminum corrosion.
Question 21: During a pressurized aircraft's service life, the fuselage skin experiences repeated pressurization cycles. What fatigue mechanism is primarily responsible for eventual skin cracking?
- High-cycle vibration fatigue
- Stress corrosion cracking
- Creep at elevated temperature
- Low-cycle fatigue from pressurization/depressurization (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Low-cycle fatigue from pressurization/depressurization
Each flight cycle applies one pressurization/depressurization event, constituting low-cycle fatigue that drives crack initiation and propagation in fuselage skin.
Question 22: What fuel selector valve position is recommended during takeoff and landing on most aircraft with multiple fuel tanks?
- Off
- Left tank only
- Both tanks or the fullest tank (Correct answer)
- Right tank only
Correct answer: Both tanks or the fullest tank
Selecting 'Both' or the fullest tank during takeoff and landing ensures maximum fuel availability and minimizes the risk of fuel starvation during these critical flight phases.
Question 23: A maintenance technician is handling Skydrol, a common aviation hydraulic fluid. Which of the following is a critical characteristic of this fluid that necessitates careful handling and the use of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
- It is highly flammable at room temperature.
- It is a petroleum-based fluid that is non-toxic.
- It is a phosphate ester-based fluid that is extremely irritating to human tissue. (Correct answer)
- It has a low viscosity and freezes at standard sea-level temperatures.
Correct answer: It is a phosphate ester-based fluid that is extremely irritating to human tissue.
Skydrol is a fire-resistant, phosphate ester-based hydraulic fluid. While it has excellent properties for aviation use, it is known to be very irritating to the skin and eyes, requiring the use of appropriate PPE like gloves and goggles during handling.
Question 24: When fabricating a 90-degree bend in a piece of aluminum sheet metal with a radius of 0.125 inches and a thickness of 0.063 inches, what is the setback?
- 0.251 inches
- 0.125 inches
- 0.188 inches (Correct answer)
- 0.063 inches
Correct answer: 0.188 inches
For a 90-degree bend, the setback is calculated by adding the bend radius to the thickness of the material. In this case, Setback = Radius + Thickness = 0.125" + 0.063" = 0.188". Setback is a critical calculation for determining the starting point of the bend.
Question 25: What is the primary function of a static inverter in an aircraft electrical system?
- To regulate the voltage output of the main generators.
- To provide a stable source of DC power for emergency lighting.
- To convert AC power to DC power for battery charging.
- To convert DC power from the aircraft battery or DC bus to AC power. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To convert DC power from the aircraft battery or DC bus to AC power.
A static inverter is a solid-state electronic device that converts direct current (DC) into alternating current (AC). This allows DC power from sources like the aircraft's batteries or transformer-rectifier units to be used for instruments and avionics that require AC power, often as a primary or emergency backup source.
Question 26: Fretting corrosion between aluminum skin and a steel fastener is best prevented by:
- Increasing rivet spacing
- Applying a wet-installation sealant or corrosion inhibiting compound (Correct answer)
- Using a larger diameter fastener
- Using an aluminum fastener instead
Correct answer: Applying a wet-installation sealant or corrosion inhibiting compound
Wet installation with sealant or corrosion inhibiting compound prevents galvanic contact and moisture intrusion between dissimilar metals.
Question 27: A pilot reports a violent, uncontrolled, side-to-side oscillation of the nose wheel during takeoff and landing rolls. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause?
- Nose wheel shimmy. (Correct answer)
- Hydraulic fluid cavitation in the brake lines.
- A malfunctioning centering cam.
- An over-inflated nose wheel tire.
Correct answer: Nose wheel shimmy.
The condition described is a classic symptom of nose wheel shimmy. This is a rapid, uncontrolled side-to-side oscillation that can be caused by several factors, including worn torque link bushings, an improperly serviced or failing shimmy damper, incorrect tire pressure, or an out-of-balance wheel/tire assembly.
Question 28: Which condition must be verified before performing a flush rivet repair on a pressurized fuselage skin to ensure it meets original design intent?
- The doubler is installed on the exterior surface only
- The repair restores original skin thickness, strength, and pressure-tightness (Correct answer)
- The repair is painted before pressure testing
- The repair uses only solid shank rivets, never blind rivets
Correct answer: The repair restores original skin thickness, strength, and pressure-tightness
A pressurized fuselage repair must restore original material thickness and strength while also maintaining airtight integrity against the pressure differential in flight.
Question 29: What regulation governs fuel system airworthiness design requirements for certificated aircraft?
- 14 CFR Part 91 — General Operating and Flight Rules
- 14 CFR Part 65 — Certification of Airmen
- 14 CFR Part 43 — Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration
- 14 CFR Part 23 or Part 25, depending on aircraft category (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 14 CFR Part 23 or Part 25, depending on aircraft category
Fuel system design and certification standards are contained in 14 CFR Part 23 for normal/utility/aerobatic/commuter aircraft and Part 25 for transport category aircraft.
Question 30: Which of the following conditions is a primary cause of 'thermal runaway' in an aircraft's nickel-cadmium (Ni-Cad) battery?
- Excessive discharge rates during engine start.
- Low electrolyte level causing increased internal resistance.
- High charging current combined with high battery temperature. (Correct answer)
- Operation in extremely low ambient temperatures.
Correct answer: High charging current combined with high battery temperature.
Thermal runaway in a Ni-Cad battery is a dangerous condition where high charging currents and high internal battery temperatures create a self-sustaining cycle. As the battery's temperature increases, its internal resistance drops, causing it to accept even more current from the charging system. This further increases the temperature, leading to an uncontrollable, rapid rise that can destroy the battery and create a fire hazard.
Question 31: Which type of corrosion appears as white or gray powdery deposits on aluminum sheet metal?
- Galvanic corrosion
- Surface (uniform) corrosion (Correct answer)
- Intergranular corrosion
- Stress corrosion cracking
Correct answer: Surface (uniform) corrosion
Surface or uniform corrosion on aluminum produces a white or gray powdery aluminum oxide deposit on the surface.
Question 32: What is the primary reason that aircraft maintenance manuals provide a temperature/tension chart for rigging flight control cables?
- To compensate for the different thermal expansion rates of the aluminum airframe and the steel cables. (Correct answer)
- To prevent corrosion from forming between the cable strands.
- To determine the correct size of safety wire to use on the turnbuckles.
- To ensure the tensiometer is properly calibrated before use.
Correct answer: To compensate for the different thermal expansion rates of the aluminum airframe and the steel cables.
Aircraft structures, typically made of aluminum alloys, expand and contract at a different rate than the steel control cables when subjected to temperature changes. A temperature/tension chart allows a technician to set the correct cable tension at a given ambient temperature, ensuring that the tension will remain within the specified limits whether the aircraft is on a hot ramp or at high altitude where temperatures are very low.
Question 33: What is the function of an antiservo tab on a stabilator?
- It trims out stabilator forces during climb only
- It assists the pilot by reducing the force required to move the stabilator
- It prevents the stabilator from exceeding its structural limits
- It opposes stabilator movement to provide control feel and prevent overcontrol (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It opposes stabilator movement to provide control feel and prevent overcontrol
An antiservo (antibalance) tab deflects in the same direction as the stabilator, creating aerodynamic resistance that gives the pilot proper control feel.
Question 34: A technician observes that a hydraulic system is operating sluggishly. The system has been serviced recently, and the fluid level in the reservoir is correct. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
- Air has been introduced into the system. (Correct answer)
- The system relief valve is stuck open.
- The incorrect type of hydraulic fluid was used.
- The ambient temperature is too high.
Correct answer: Air has been introduced into the system.
Air in a hydraulic system is compressible, unlike hydraulic fluid. When air is present, the force applied by the pump will first compress the air before moving the hydraulic fluid, leading to a spongy feel and sluggish operation of actuators.
Question 35: What is the purpose of a 'sector' (or quadrant) in a flight control system?
- It limits maximum surface deflection
- It amplifies control input force
- It converts linear cable motion to rotational motion at the control surface (Correct answer)
- It provides a pulley for cable direction changes
Correct answer: It converts linear cable motion to rotational motion at the control surface
A sector (quadrant) is a curved drum or arc that converts the linear pull of a cable into rotational movement to deflect a control surface.
Question 36: When an inspector performs a 'tap test' on a bonded honeycomb composite panel, what is the primary type of defect they are trying to detect?
- Surface porosity in the face sheet
- Improper electrical bonding of the panel
- Delamination or disbond between the face sheet and core (Correct answer)
- Incorrect honeycomb core cell size
Correct answer: Delamination or disbond between the face sheet and core
Tap testing is a common non-destructive inspection method for composite structures. A sharp, clear 'ring' indicates a good bond, while a dull 'thud' sound indicates a void, delamination, or disbond between the skin and the honeycomb core. [18, 24, 30]
Question 37: In a pneumatic system, what is the primary purpose of a moisture separator or chemical dryer component?
- To increase the pressure of the system.
- To add lubrication to the compressed air.
- To cool the compressed air before it enters the system.
- To remove water vapor and prevent corrosion or freezing. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To remove water vapor and prevent corrosion or freezing.
As ambient air is compressed, its temperature rises, and it can hold more moisture. When the air cools, this moisture condenses. A moisture separator and/or chemical dryer (desiccant) is installed downstream of the compressor to remove this water vapor, preventing it from causing corrosion or freezing in the pneumatic lines and components.
Question 38: When assembling a modular aircraft fuselage, what is typically used to ensure proper alignment of major structural assemblies before final fastener installation?
- Adjustable clamps and mechanic's judgment
- Laser levels and plumb bobs from adjacent structure
- Center-of-gravity measurement equipment
- Alignment fixtures or assembly jigs specified by the manufacturer (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Alignment fixtures or assembly jigs specified by the manufacturer
Manufacturer-specified assembly jigs and fixtures ensure that major structural components are held in the correct position and alignment during assembly.
Question 39: Which document provides the minimum inspection requirements for a U.S.-registered civil aircraft?
- AC 43.13-1B
- The aircraft's Pilot's Operating Handbook
- 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix D (Correct answer)
- 14 CFR Part 91
Correct answer: 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix D
14 CFR Part 43, Appendix D lists the scope and detail of items to be included in annual and 100-hour inspections.
Question 40: Which class of aircraft hardware requires a specific military or industry standard part number to be used as a direct replacement?
- Standard parts (Correct answer)
- Approved parts
- TSO-approved parts
- PMA parts
Correct answer: Standard parts
Standard parts are manufactured to an established industry or U.S. military specification and may be used as direct replacements when the part number matches the specification.
Question 41: What is the function of a fuel strainer (gascolator) installed in an aircraft fuel system?
- To control the fuel-to-air mixture ratio
- To boost fuel pressure to the carburetor
- To remove water and debris from fuel before it reaches the engine (Correct answer)
- To measure fuel flow rate to the engine
Correct answer: To remove water and debris from fuel before it reaches the engine
A fuel strainer or gascolator filters out water, sediment, and particulate contaminants to protect the carburetor and engine from damage.
Question 42: Which of the following describes the minimum allowable edge distance for a single row of protruding head rivets in a sheet metal repair?
- One and a half times the rivet shank diameter
- Two times the rivet shank diameter (Correct answer)
- One times the rivet shank diameter
- Three times the rivet shank diameter
Correct answer: Two times the rivet shank diameter
According to FAA guidelines (AC 43.13-1B), the minimum edge distance, measured from the center of the rivet hole to the edge of the sheet, should not be less than two times the diameter of the rivet shank for a single row of rivets. This ensures sufficient material strength to prevent the rivet from tearing out the edge of the sheet.
Question 43: According to 14 CFR Part 43, which of the following is authorized to perform an annual inspection and approve an aircraft for return to service?
- The aircraft owner, provided they hold at least a private pilot certificate.
- An A&P mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization (IA). (Correct answer)
- Any certificated Airframe and Powerplant (A&P) mechanic.
- An A&P mechanic with at least 10 years of experience on the specific aircraft type.
Correct answer: An A&P mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization (IA).
14 CFR Part 43 specifies the performance standards and authorized persons for maintenance. While an A&P mechanic can perform a 100-hour inspection, only an A&P with a separate Inspection Authorization (IA), a certified repair station, or the aircraft manufacturer can perform an annual inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service.
Question 44: What material is commonly used for flexible fuel hose connections in certified aircraft fuel systems?
- Copper tubing
- Aluminum rigid tubing
- Teflon-lined synthetic rubber hose (Correct answer)
- Unlined steel braided hose
Correct answer: Teflon-lined synthetic rubber hose
Teflon-lined synthetic rubber hoses are used for flexible fuel connections because Teflon resists aviation fuel degradation and the rubber provides flexibility to absorb vibration.
Question 45: What is the primary function of an aircraft structure?
- To house the engine components.
- To provide storage space for equipment.
- To support and maintain the integrity of the aircraft's components (Correct answer)
- To ensure aerodynamic efficiency.
Correct answer: To support and maintain the integrity of the aircraft's components
The aircraft structure serves as the frame of the aircraft, providing support for all components and maintaining the aircraft's shape and integrity.
Question 46: What type of fuel system is used on most high-wing general aviation aircraft with gravity-fed carburetor engines?
- Bladder-cell system pressurized by engine bleed air
- Gravity-feed system relying on fuel head pressure from the tanks (Correct answer)
- Centrifugal pump system driven by the accessory gearbox
- Pressure injection system with electric pumps
Correct answer: Gravity-feed system relying on fuel head pressure from the tanks
High-wing aircraft with carbureted engines often use a gravity-feed system where fuel flows by gravity from the wing tanks above the engine without requiring a pump.
Question 47: Hydraulic system contamination is MOST commonly introduced during:
- High-altitude cruise flight
- Normal pump operation
- Maintenance when lines are opened and fluid is serviced (Correct answer)
- System pressurization on the ground
Correct answer: Maintenance when lines are opened and fluid is serviced
Most contamination enters hydraulic systems during maintenance activities when lines are disconnected, components are replaced, or fluid is added.
Question 48: Which of the following best describes 'geometric twist' in a wing?
- The difference in sweep angle between the leading and trailing edges
- A change in airfoil profile from root to tip while keeping the chord line angle constant
- A physical change in the chord line angle from root to tip, independent of airfoil shape change (Correct answer)
- The variation in dihedral angle along the span
Correct answer: A physical change in the chord line angle from root to tip, independent of airfoil shape change
Geometric (washout/wash-in) twist is a physical rotation of the entire wing section about the span axis, changing the angle of incidence from root to tip.
Question 49: When riveting near a formed flange or edge, which direction should the bucking bar force be applied relative to the rivet shank?
- At a 45° angle to maximize driven head spread
- Perpendicular to the rivet shank
- At the angle matching the countersink angle
- Parallel to the rivet shank (axially) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Parallel to the rivet shank (axially)
The bucking bar must be held perpendicular to the sheet surface and aligned axially with the rivet shank to form a properly shaped driven head.
Question 50: When laying out rivet rows, the transverse pitch (row spacing) should be at minimum:
- Equal to the rivet pitch within the row
- Equal to the edge distance
- 75% of the rivet pitch within the row (Correct answer)
- 3 times the rivet diameter
Correct answer: 75% of the rivet pitch within the row
Transverse pitch (distance between rows) should be at least 75% of the longitudinal pitch to maintain proper load distribution.
Question 51: A turbine engine's N1 speed refers to:
- Propeller RPM on a turboprop
- Low-pressure compressor (fan) and turbine spool speed (Correct answer)
- Accessory gearbox speed
- High-pressure compressor and turbine spool speed
Correct answer: Low-pressure compressor (fan) and turbine spool speed
N1 represents the rotational speed of the low-pressure spool, which includes the fan (in turbofans) and associated low-pressure turbine stages.
Question 52: What condition exists when a rivet exhibits a 'smile' or crescent-shaped crack in the manufactured head after driving?
- The rivet hole was undersize causing head fracture
- The rivet was driven with an improperly fitted rivet set
- The material is too hard for solid shank rivets
- The rivet was overdriven (too many hammer blows) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The rivet was overdriven (too many hammer blows)
A crescent crack in the rivet head is a sign of overdriving; the excessive deformation stress cracks the head, requiring the rivet to be removed and replaced.
Question 53: What is the purpose of checking control surface balance (mass balance) during assembly?
- To measure the surface's maximum deflection angle
- To verify that the surface is aerodynamically efficient at cruise speed
- To confirm the hinge bolts are properly torqued
- To prevent flutter by ensuring the control surface center of gravity is at or forward of the hinge line (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To prevent flutter by ensuring the control surface center of gravity is at or forward of the hinge line
Mass balancing positions the control surface CG at or ahead of the hinge line, which suppresses aerodynamic flutter that could lead to structural failure.
Question 54: When performing a scab patch repair on aircraft skin, the patch material should be:
- Any available aluminum sheet of similar thickness
- One gauge thicker than the original skin
- A higher-strength alloy to compensate for stress
- The same material and temper as the original skin (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The same material and temper as the original skin
Patch material must match the original skin in alloy, temper, and thickness to ensure compatible strength and fatigue characteristics.
Question 55: What is the function of a jury strut on a semi-cantilever wing?
- Carries the primary bending load from the wing to the fuselage
- Transfers fuel load to the center section
- Prevents the interplane strut from bowing under compression loads (Correct answer)
- Connects the wing leading edge to the forward fuselage
Correct answer: Prevents the interplane strut from bowing under compression loads
A jury strut braces the interplane or wing strut at its midpoint to prevent bowing or buckling under compressive loads.
Question 56: After rigging a rudder control system, the rudder deflects 25° right but only 20° left. What is the most likely cause?
- The vertical fin is misaligned to the fuselage
- The rudder stop on the left side is set too close, or the left cable is over-tensioned relative to the right (Correct answer)
- The cable on the right side has too many nicks
- The rudder hinge bolts are too tight on the left side
Correct answer: The rudder stop on the left side is set too close, or the left cable is over-tensioned relative to the right
Asymmetric deflection typically results from an incorrectly set travel stop on the low-travel side or unequal cable tension causing the neutral position to be offset.
Question 57: A mechanic is about to perform maintenance on a pressurized aircraft fuel line. What is the FIRST step before opening any fittings?
- Tag out the fuel pump circuit breaker
- Place absorbent material under the work area
- Ensure the fuel system pressure is relieved (Correct answer)
- Don rubber gloves and safety glasses
Correct answer: Ensure the fuel system pressure is relieved
Before opening any pressurized fuel line fitting, the system pressure must be fully relieved to prevent fuel spray and potential fire or injury.
Question 58: Excessive friction (stiffness) in a flight control system is MOST dangerous because it:
- Masks control feedback and can prevent the pilot from detecting aerodynamic loads (Correct answer)
- Reduces maximum control surface deflection
- Increases cable tension beyond limits
- Causes premature wear of pulleys and fairleads
Correct answer: Masks control feedback and can prevent the pilot from detecting aerodynamic loads
High friction masks aerodynamic loads (stick forces) and may prevent the pilot from feeling control surface buffet or overload, reducing situational awareness.
Question 59: What is the primary advantage of using a flush (countersunk) rivet on external aircraft skin?
- It is stronger in shear than a protruding head rivet of the same diameter
- It is easier to install in thin sheet materials
- It reduces aerodynamic drag by maintaining a smooth surface (Correct answer)
- It does not require a bucking bar during installation
Correct answer: It reduces aerodynamic drag by maintaining a smooth surface
Flush rivets create a smooth aerodynamic surface by seating the head level with the skin, reducing drag compared to protruding head rivets.
Question 60: When performing a sheet metal repair, the minimum edge distance for a rivet from the edge of the sheet is typically:
- 1.5 times the rivet diameter (Correct answer)
- 2.5 times the rivet diameter
- 2 times the rivet diameter
- 3 times the rivet diameter
Correct answer: 1.5 times the rivet diameter
Minimum edge distance is 1.5 times the rivet diameter to prevent sheet splitting or edge tearout.
Question 61: What is the primary purpose of wash-in and wash-out adjustments on an aircraft wing?
- To change wing incidence for weight and balance
- To control the spanwise lift distribution and stall characteristics (Correct answer)
- To align the wing attachment fittings
- To adjust wing dihedral angle
Correct answer: To control the spanwise lift distribution and stall characteristics
Wash-in (increasing angle of attack toward the tip) and wash-out (decreasing it) control spanwise lift distribution and stall progression.
Question 62: Which repair method is used when the damage to an aircraft skin panel is too extensive for a patch but the surrounding structure is still sound?
- Section replacement (Correct answer)
- Flush patch repair
- Insert repair
- Scab patch repair
Correct answer: Section replacement
Section replacement removes the entire damaged section and replaces it with new material when damage is too extensive for patching.
Question 63: During a repair of a stressed-skin structure, a small crack is found. What is the first procedural step to stop the progression of the crack before applying a patch?
- Drill a small hole at each end of the crack. (Correct answer)
- Rivet a patch directly over the crack.
- Apply a sealant to the crack.
- Blend out the crack using an abrasive pad.
Correct answer: Drill a small hole at each end of the crack.
To prevent a crack from spreading in a stressed-skin structure, a small hole must be drilled at each end of the crack. This technique, known as stop-drilling, relieves the stress concentration at the crack tips.
Question 64: What type of corrosion forms as a white powdery deposit on aluminum aircraft structures?
- Fretting corrosion
- Intergranular corrosion
- Filiform corrosion
- Oxidation corrosion (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Oxidation corrosion
Oxidation corrosion on aluminum produces aluminum oxide, which appears as a white or gray powdery surface deposit.
Question 65: When rigging a conventional aircraft control system, what document establishes the correct cable tension values?
- The manufacturer's maintenance or service manual (Correct answer)
- FAA Advisory Circular AC 43.13-1B
- The aircraft's weight and balance report
- The aircraft's Type Certificate Data Sheet
Correct answer: The manufacturer's maintenance or service manual
Cable tension specifications are aircraft-specific and must be obtained from the manufacturer's maintenance or service manual.
Question 66: What is the function of a propeller governor?
- Maintain a selected RPM by varying propeller pitch (Correct answer)
- Prevent propeller overspeed by cutting fuel
- Limit maximum propeller RPM by feathering
- Control propeller de-ice heating cycles
Correct answer: Maintain a selected RPM by varying propeller pitch
The propeller governor maintains a pilot-selected RPM by increasing or decreasing blade pitch as engine power or airspeed changes.
Question 67: According to 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A, which of the following is considered a major alteration to an aircraft's hydraulic system?
- Replacing the seals in a brake master cylinder.
- Changes to the basic design of the hydraulic system. (Correct answer)
- Replacing a hydraulic hose with an identical, approved part.
- Servicing a hydraulic accumulator with nitrogen.
Correct answer: Changes to the basic design of the hydraulic system.
14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A defines major alterations. Changes to the basic design of the fuel, oil, cooling, heating, cabin pressurization, electrical, hydraulic, de-icing, or exhaust systems are specifically listed as major alterations. Simple component replacements or servicing are generally considered maintenance or minor repairs.
Question 68: When safety wiring a turnbuckle using the double-wrap method, what is the generally accepted rule regarding the number of threads that may be exposed at either end of the barrel?
- No more than three threads. (Correct answer)
- At least five threads must be visible for inspection.
- No more than five threads.
- Exactly four threads for maximum grip.
Correct answer: No more than three threads.
To ensure adequate thread engagement and structural integrity, standard aviation practice dictates that no more than three threads of the turnbuckle terminal should be exposed outside the barrel after tensioning and before safetying. This ensures the connection is strong enough to handle its rated load.
Question 69: What is the purpose of fuel tank baffles installed inside aircraft fuel tanks?
- To allow the fuel quantity transmitter to read accurately
- To filter large debris before fuel reaches the boost pump
- To increase internal fuel tank pressure during climb
- To prevent fuel surge and maintain fuel outlet coverage during flight maneuvers (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To prevent fuel surge and maintain fuel outlet coverage during flight maneuvers
Fuel tank baffles are internal partitions that prevent fuel from surging away from the outlet during maneuvers, ensuring continuous uninterrupted fuel flow to the engine.
Question 70: What condition does a cracked or chafed pitot tube indicate regarding airworthiness?
- The crack can be repaired with sealant if minor
- The aircraft is airworthy if the crack is less than 1 inch
- The pitot tube must be replaced before flight (Correct answer)
- Only the static system needs inspection
Correct answer: The pitot tube must be replaced before flight
A cracked or chafed pitot tube compromises airspeed indication and is an unairworthy condition requiring replacement before flight.
Question 71: What effect does cold working (such as shot peening) have on aluminum aircraft structure?
- Introduces compressive residual stress to improve fatigue life (Correct answer)
- Reduces hardness to allow easier forming
- Removes work-hardening from the surface layer
- Increases susceptibility to stress corrosion cracking
Correct answer: Introduces compressive residual stress to improve fatigue life
Shot peening induces compressive residual stresses in the surface layer, which counteract tensile fatigue stresses and significantly extend component life.
Question 72: A pulley bracket must be inspected for cracks before installation. Which non-destructive inspection method is most practical for an aluminum pulley bracket in a production environment?
- Magnetic particle inspection
- Ultrasonic thickness testing
- Dye penetrant inspection (Correct answer)
- Radiographic (X-ray) inspection
Correct answer: Dye penetrant inspection
Dye penetrant inspection is practical for aluminum components because aluminum is non-ferromagnetic (ruling out magnetic particle) and the method reveals surface cracks cost-effectively.
Question 73: What information is required on an FAA Form 337 for a major repair to an airframe?
- Only the mechanic's name and the date
- The repair station certificate number only
- Aircraft serial number and owner name only
- Description of the work, the data used, and the certificated signature approving return to service (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Description of the work, the data used, and the certificated signature approving return to service
FAA Form 337 must describe the repair, the data or approved methods used, and include the signature of the authorized person approving the work.
Question 74: What is 'misfueling' and what is a common serious consequence?
- Overfilling a tank beyond capacity, causing only minor fuel spillage
- Putting the wrong type of fuel in an aircraft, which can cause engine failure or serious damage (Correct answer)
- Mixing two approved brands of the same fuel type, with no safety consequence
- Failing to refuel before flight, leading to fuel starvation in flight
Correct answer: Putting the wrong type of fuel in an aircraft, which can cause engine failure or serious damage
Misfueling means adding the wrong fuel type (e.g., Jet-A into an avgas piston engine), which can cause immediate engine failure, detonation, or serious internal engine damage.
Question 75: When inspecting a control surface for freedom of movement, a technician notes binding. What is the FIRST corrective step?
- Lubricate the hinges and recheck
- Adjust cable tension to compensate
- Log the discrepancy and release for flight
- Identify and remove the source of binding before flight (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Identify and remove the source of binding before flight
Binding in a control surface is a flight safety issue; the source must be identified and corrected before the aircraft is released for flight.
Question 76: What fuel tank venting requirement must be met to prevent structural damage to the tank?
- Vent openings must be protected against ice blockage (Correct answer)
- Vents must be located only on the top surface of fuel tanks
- Vents must allow airflow in one direction only
- All vents must incorporate check valves
Correct answer: Vent openings must be protected against ice blockage
FAA regulations require fuel tank vents to be protected against icing so tanks can breathe freely, preventing dangerous pressure differentials that could damage the tank structure.
Question 77: What type of stress acts perpendicular to the cross-section of a structural member and tends to pull it apart?
- Torsion
- Compression
- Shear
- Tension (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Tension
Tension is a pulling force that acts perpendicular to the cross-section and tends to elongate or pull a structural member apart.
Question 78: What is the primary purpose of a fuel boost pump in an aircraft fuel system?
- To filter contaminants from the fuel
- To measure fuel quantity in the tank
- To provide positive fuel pressure and prevent vapor lock (Correct answer)
- To transfer fuel between wing tanks
Correct answer: To provide positive fuel pressure and prevent vapor lock
Fuel boost pumps supply positive pressure to the engine-driven fuel pump inlet, preventing vapor lock and ensuring reliable fuel flow especially at high altitudes.
Question 79: What is the maximum allowable depth of a scratch on a structural aluminum tube before repair or replacement is required, according to AC 43.13-1B?
- 10% of wall thickness (Correct answer)
- 5% of outside diameter
- Any scratch requires immediate replacement
- 50% of wall thickness
Correct answer: 10% of wall thickness
AC 43.13-1B limits scratches in structural tubing to 10% of wall thickness; deeper scratches require repair or replacement.
Question 80: A 'joggle' in aircraft sheet metal is used to:
- Strengthen a panel by adding curvature
- Allow one sheet to overlap another while maintaining a flush surface (Correct answer)
- Create a drainage channel in the skin
- Mark rivet hole locations accurately
Correct answer: Allow one sheet to overlap another while maintaining a flush surface
A joggle is an offset bend that allows overlapping sheets to remain flush with each other and the surrounding structure.
Question 81: On a pneumatic deicing system, what controls the inflation sequence of the boots?
- Bleed air pressure alone
- The flight crew manually inflating each boot
- A timer or distributor valve (Correct answer)
- The ice detector sensor directly
Correct answer: A timer or distributor valve
A timer or distributor valve sequences the inflation of individual boot sections in a predetermined order.
Question 82: When bleeding a hydraulic system, the purpose is to:
- Test the relief valve setting
- Lower system pressure to a safe level for maintenance
- Expel trapped air to ensure solid, responsive actuator operation (Correct answer)
- Remove contaminated fluid from the system
Correct answer: Expel trapped air to ensure solid, responsive actuator operation
Bleeding removes air pockets that cause spongy or sluggish actuator response because air is compressible unlike hydraulic fluid.
Question 83: An aircraft's electrical system is protected by 'trip-free' circuit breakers. What is the defining characteristic of this type of circuit breaker?
- It will open the circuit to protect against overloads, even if the operating mechanism is held in the 'ON' position. (Correct answer)
- It can be manually reset only after the fault condition has been cleared.
- It automatically resets itself once the circuit has cooled down after an overload.
- It requires a special tool to be reset, preventing unauthorized reactivation of the circuit.
Correct answer: It will open the circuit to protect against overloads, even if the operating mechanism is held in the 'ON' position.
A 'trip-free' circuit breaker is a safety device designed to open and interrupt the current flow during an overload condition, regardless of the position of the operating handle. Even if a pilot or maintenance person tries to hold it in the closed ('ON') position, the internal mechanism will remain open as long as the fault exists, preventing damage to the circuit and reducing fire risk.
Question 84: Wing dihedral angle is measured as the angle between the:
- Wing leading edge and the horizontal
- Spanwise axis of the wing and the horizontal plane (Correct answer)
- Wing upper surface and the vertical
- Wing chord line and the longitudinal axis of the fuselage
Correct answer: Spanwise axis of the wing and the horizontal plane
Dihedral angle is the upward angle of the wing's spanwise axis (or a reference line along the wing) relative to the horizontal plane.
Question 85: What is the primary function of a Constant Speed Drive (CSD) connected to an engine-driven AC generator?
- To act as a clutch, allowing the generator to be disengaged.
- To cool the generator using a dedicated oil system.
- To convert the variable engine RPM into a constant generator RPM. (Correct answer)
- To provide over-voltage protection for the electrical bus.
Correct answer: To convert the variable engine RPM into a constant generator RPM.
AC generators must rotate at a precise, constant speed to produce alternating current at a stable frequency (typically 400 Hz). A Constant Speed Drive is a hydro-mechanical transmission that takes the variable RPM from the engine's accessory gearbox and outputs a constant RPM to drive the generator.
Question 86: A turbine-powered aircraft's thermal anti-icing system for the wing leading edges is indicating a fault. The system uses engine bleed air. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the system to fail to operate correctly?
- The pneumatic de-icing boots are operating simultaneously.
- The windshield wiper motor has shorted out.
- The chemical rain repellent system reservoir is empty.
- The anti-ice valve has failed to open. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The anti-ice valve has failed to open.
Thermal anti-icing systems on turbine aircraft typically use hot bleed air from the engine's compressor section. This hot air is ducted to the leading edges of the wings and tail surfaces. A critical component in this system is the anti-ice valve, which controls the flow of bleed air. If this valve fails to open, hot air cannot reach the leading edges, rendering the system inoperative and triggering a fault indication.
Question 87: What tool is used to measure the tension of an aircraft control cable?
- Cable tensiometer (Correct answer)
- Torque wrench
- Cable tension gauge pliers
- Micrometer caliper
Correct answer: Cable tensiometer
A cable tensiometer (such as a T-5 or C-8 type) is the standard tool used to measure control cable tension.
Question 88: Which alclad aluminum alloy sheet is most commonly used for aircraft skin applications due to its high strength-to-weight ratio?
- 7075-T6
- 2024-T3 (Correct answer)
- 6061-T6
- 2017-T4
Correct answer: 2024-T3
2024-T3 alclad is the most common aircraft skin material, offering high strength combined with the corrosion protection of the pure aluminum cladding.
Question 89: The rigging pin (alignment pin) used during assembly of a control surface to the airframe is intended to:
- Balance the control surface during final rigging
- Replace hinge bolts during ferry flights
- Hold components in precise alignment for installation of fasteners (Correct answer)
- Permanently lock the control surface in neutral position
Correct answer: Hold components in precise alignment for installation of fasteners
Rigging pins temporarily hold parts in the exact alignment position specified by the manufacturer so that fasteners can be installed correctly.
Question 90: What safety procedure must be performed before opening an aircraft fuel system for maintenance?
- Pressurize the fuel system to identify leaks first
- Bond and ground the aircraft to prevent static discharge and follow all fuel safety precautions (Correct answer)
- Apply preservative oil to all fuel fittings before disconnecting
- Disconnect only the aircraft battery to prevent sparks
Correct answer: Bond and ground the aircraft to prevent static discharge and follow all fuel safety precautions
Aircraft must be properly bonded and grounded before fuel system maintenance to prevent static electricity ignition of fuel vapors, and all applicable fuel safety precautions must be followed.
Question 91: During a landing gear extension sequence, the landing gear doors must open fully before the gear begins to extend. Which type of valve is specifically designed to control the sequence of operations between two different branches of a hydraulic circuit?
- Relief valve
- Selector valve
- Sequence valve (Correct answer)
- Check valve
Correct answer: Sequence valve
A sequence valve is designed to control the order of operations in a hydraulic system. It ensures that one action, like opening the gear doors, is completed before another action, like extending the landing gear, begins.
Question 92: What inspection is required for a fuel tank after it has been repaired or resealed?
- An ultrasonic thickness test of all tank walls
- A dye penetrant inspection of all interior seams
- A visual inspection of the exterior seams only
- A pressure test to verify fuel-tight integrity and structural soundness (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A pressure test to verify fuel-tight integrity and structural soundness
After repair or resealing, fuel tanks must be pressure tested to confirm they are fuel-tight and structurally sound before being returned to service per the maintenance manual.
Question 93: What is the function of a 'joggle' in a sheet metal repair or splice?
- To provide additional rivet hole locations
- To increase the thickness of a sheet at a lap joint
- To create a waterproof seal between panels
- To allow one sheet to overlap another while maintaining a flush outer surface (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To allow one sheet to overlap another while maintaining a flush outer surface
A joggle is an offset formed in sheet metal so that a lap joint can be made flush on the outer surface without a protruding step.
Question 94: An aircraft's electrical schematic shows a device that uses a small current flowing through a coil to electromagnetically close a set of contacts, allowing a much larger current to flow to a high-power component like a starter motor. Which device performs this function?
- A circuit breaker
- A resistor
- A diode
- A relay (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A relay
A relay is an electromechanical switch that uses a small control current to activate an electromagnet, which in turn closes contacts to control a separate, high-power circuit. This allows for remote switching and reduces the need for heavy-gauge wiring to the cockpit controls.
Question 95: What is the maximum allowable fuel tank leakage per FAA standards?
- Zero leakage is permitted under any condition
- Up to three drops per minute is acceptable during normal operation
- Any minor leakage is acceptable if the fuel cap is secure
- Seepage (wetness without drops forming) is acceptable; dripping is not (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Seepage (wetness without drops forming) is acceptable; dripping is not
FAA standards distinguish between 'seepage' (fuel wetness with no drops) which is acceptable, and 'leakage' where drops form, which is not airworthy.
Question 96: What is the recommended action when a mechanic discovers a crack in an aircraft structural component?
- Stop-drill the crack ends and return the aircraft to service
- Weld the crack closed and re-inspect after 100 hours
- Apply epoxy filler and repaint the area
- Ground the aircraft and consult the manufacturer's structural repair manual (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Ground the aircraft and consult the manufacturer's structural repair manual
Structural cracks require the aircraft to be grounded and repairs must follow the manufacturer's structural repair manual or an FAA-approved repair scheme.
Question 97: A post-maintenance flight test reveals an aircraft has a persistent tendency to roll to the left. Before resorting to trimming devices, the mechanic should perform which of the following rigging checks?
- A cable tension check of the rudder system.
- An operational check of the horizontal stabilizer travel.
- A static balance check of the elevator.
- A symmetry and incidence check of the wings. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A symmetry and incidence check of the wings.
A tendency to roll indicates an asymmetry in the lift being produced by the wings. This can be caused by improper wing rigging, where one wing has a slightly different angle of incidence (the angle at which the wing is attached to the fuselage) or if the wings are not symmetrical with respect to the aircraft's longitudinal axis. A symmetry and incidence check is required to verify and correct these angles.
Question 98: A 'stop-drill' is used in sheet metal repair to:
- Create holes for new rivets
- Halt crack propagation by removing the stress concentration at the crack tip (Correct answer)
- Align repair patches during installation
- Remove old rivets from damaged panels
Correct answer: Halt crack propagation by removing the stress concentration at the crack tip
Stop-drilling places a hole at the end of a crack to redistribute stress and prevent the crack from continuing to grow.
Question 99: What is the primary advantage of a variable-displacement hydraulic pump over a fixed-displacement pump?
- Automatically adjusts output flow to match system demand, reducing heat generation (Correct answer)
- Higher maximum pressure output
- Lower initial cost and simpler construction
- Elimination of the need for a hydraulic reservoir
Correct answer: Automatically adjusts output flow to match system demand, reducing heat generation
A variable-displacement pump reduces its output as system demand drops, minimizing heat buildup and energy waste compared to a fixed-displacement pump that must bypass excess flow through a relief valve.
Question 100: Before checking the wing dihedral and incidence angles during a rigging check, what is the most critical preparatory step?
- Leveling the aircraft both longitudinally and laterally according to the maintenance manual. (Correct answer)
- Retracting the landing gear and placing the aircraft on tail stands.
- Ensuring the fuel tanks are completely full to establish a baseline weight.
- Setting all flight controls and trim tabs to their neutral positions.
Correct answer: Leveling the aircraft both longitudinally and laterally according to the maintenance manual.
All airframe alignment and rigging measurements must be taken from a specific, known reference plane. The aircraft must first be leveled according to the manufacturer's specific instructions and leveling points (often using a spirit level or plumb bob). Performing these checks on an un-level aircraft will result in inaccurate measurements and improper rigging.
FAA Airframe Mechanic Written Exam
Certifies individuals to inspect, maintain, and repair aircraft airframes, ensuring structural integrity and system functionality in accordance with FAA regulations.
Exam Rules
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- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
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