ADX - Aircraft Dispatcher Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: How does an uphill runway slope affect takeoff performance?

It increases the required takeoff distance because gravity opposes acceleration (Correct answer)
Only downhill slopes are factored into certified performance data
Runway gradient has no effect and is ignored in performance calculations
It decreases the required takeoff distance by assisting initial roll speed

Correct answer: It increases the required takeoff distance because gravity opposes acceleration

An uphill gradient forces the aircraft to accelerate against a gravitational component, increasing the ground roll and total takeoff distance.

Question 2: How is estimated time en route (ETE) used in fuel calculations?

It determines the minimum crew rest requirement between duty periods
It is used to calculate applicable airport landing and handling fees
It is multiplied by the aircraft's fuel flow rate to estimate the fuel volume burned for a flight segment (Correct answer)
It determines the scheduled off-block departure time for the flight

Correct answer: It is multiplied by the aircraft's fuel flow rate to estimate the fuel volume burned for a flight segment

Multiplying ETE by the fuel flow rate (in pounds or kilograms per hour) gives the dispatcher the estimated fuel burn for that segment of the flight.

Question 3: What is the purpose of keeping records of aircraft weight and balance calculations?

To ensure the aircraft stays within its legal weight limits (Correct answer)
To monitor the aircraft's speed during flight
To track passenger seating arrangements
To calculate the fuel cost for the flight

Correct answer: To ensure the aircraft stays within its legal weight limits

Keeping records of aircraft weight and balance calculations is paramount for flight safety and regulatory compliance. These calculations ensure the aircraft's total weight and center of gravity remain within the manufacturer's specified limits. Exceeding these limits or having an improper balance can severely compromise an aircraft's structural integrity, control, and performance.

Question 4: A dispatcher notices a SIGMET for severe icing in cloud between FL180 and FL240 along the route. Which aircraft certification is required to legally operate in that airspace?

Any IFR-certified aircraft
Aircraft with de-icing boots only
Aircraft certified for flight in known icing conditions (Correct answer)
No special certification is required if pilots are instrument-rated

Correct answer: Aircraft certified for flight in known icing conditions

Known icing SIGMETs require that aircraft be certificated and equipped for flight in known icing conditions to operate legally in the affected airspace.

Question 5: In route planning, what is the purpose of a Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)?

It defines the maximum altitude at which an aircraft may cross an intersection
It is the minimum altitude for crossing an international boundary
It is an ATC-assigned altitude for crossing active MOAs
It specifies the lowest altitude at which an aircraft must cross a certain fix when proceeding on a higher MEA segment ahead (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It specifies the lowest altitude at which an aircraft must cross a certain fix when proceeding on a higher MEA segment ahead

An MCA ensures the aircraft is at a sufficient altitude before it reaches a fix where the MEA ahead is higher, preventing obstacle or signal coverage issues.

Question 6: What does the aircraft 'flight envelope' define for dispatch planning?

The physical dimensions of the aircraft's cargo compartment
The aircraft's scheduled maintenance inspection intervals
The approved boundaries of weight, balance, speed, and structural loading for safe operation (Correct answer)
The maximum radio communication range of the aircraft

Correct answer: The approved boundaries of weight, balance, speed, and structural loading for safe operation

The flight envelope defines all operating limits — structural, aerodynamic, and performance — within which the aircraft can be safely dispatched and flown.

Question 7: What does a Wind Shear PIREP (UA) reporting '+' before the wind shear intensity indicate?

Severe wind shear (Correct answer)
Wind shear only on final approach
Positive (increasing) airspeed during wind shear encounter
Moderate wind shear

Correct answer: Severe wind shear

A '+' prefix in a PIREP wind shear report denotes severe intensity, indicating a sudden airspeed change of 15 knots or more.

Question 8: What does 'center of gravity' (CG) refer to in aircraft dispatch?

The geographic midpoint of the planned flight route
The midpoint of the passenger cabin seating area
The center of the aircraft's fuel tank arrangement
The single point at which the aircraft's entire weight is considered to act (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The single point at which the aircraft's entire weight is considered to act

Center of gravity is the balance point of the aircraft's total weight; its position within approved limits is critical for stable, controllable flight.

Question 9: When evaluating volcanic ash advisories (VAA) for a Pacific route, which characteristic of volcanic ash is most operationally dangerous to jet engines?

Ash particles melting inside the engine and re-solidifying on turbine components, causing flame-out (Correct answer)
Ash contaminating fuel in wing tanks
Ash increasing aerodynamic drag on the airframe
Ash reducing external visibility for pilots

Correct answer: Ash particles melting inside the engine and re-solidifying on turbine components, causing flame-out

Volcanic ash melts at temperatures below jet engine operating temperatures, re-solidifies on turbine blades and nozzles, causing power loss or complete engine flame-out — multiple cases have caused near-accidents.

Question 10: What is the meaning of the ACARS message status indicator 'SEND FAILED' and what should a dispatcher do?

The crew's ACARS printer is out of paper; advise maintenance on arrival
The message was delivered but the crew did not open it; wait for them to check ACARS
The message was not transmitted successfully; resend via ACARS or use an alternate communication method (Correct answer)
The message exceeded the character limit; shorten and resend

Correct answer: The message was not transmitted successfully; resend via ACARS or use an alternate communication method

A 'SEND FAILED' status means the message did not reach the aircraft, requiring the dispatcher to resend or use an alternative communication method.

Question 11: A dispatcher reviews a TAF that includes 'TEMPO 1416 +TSRA.' What does this mean?

A probability of 40% of thunderstorms between 1400Z and 1600Z
Temporary thunderstorms with heavy rain expected between 1400Z and 1600Z (Correct answer)
Thunderstorms will persist from 1400Z to 1600Z without breaks
Temporary thunderstorms with heavy rain expected between the 14th and 16th of the month

Correct answer: Temporary thunderstorms with heavy rain expected between 1400Z and 1600Z

TEMPO in a TAF indicates temporary fluctuating conditions expected to last less than half the period; 1416 means from 1400Z to 1600Z; +TSRA means heavy thunderstorm with rain.

Question 12: A dispatcher is evaluating cold weather performance data for a flight departing at -30°C OAT. Which aircraft system limitation is of PRIMARY concern in extreme cold temperatures?

Increased engine thrust beyond rated limits
Improved runway braking from hardened rubber tires
Reduced cabin pressurization requirements
Fuel viscosity changes, cold-soaked fuel system operation limits, and structural cold temperature limits (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fuel viscosity changes, cold-soaked fuel system operation limits, and structural cold temperature limits

Extreme cold temperatures can cause fuel to reach its freeze point or wax point, affect hydraulic fluid viscosity, and approach airframe structural cold temperature limits, all of which must be checked against the AFM/POH.

Question 13: What is the function of a gate hold procedure at a busy US airport?

It delays aircraft departure at the gate to manage congestion, reducing fuel burn and emissions compared to taxiway holding (Correct answer)
It requires all aircraft to hold at the gate during severe weather indefinitely
It restricts passenger boarding until the gate agent approves
It is used only when a runway is closed for maintenance

Correct answer: It delays aircraft departure at the gate to manage congestion, reducing fuel burn and emissions compared to taxiway holding

Gate hold programs keep aircraft at the gate with engines off during ground delay programs, saving fuel and reducing tarmac congestion compared to holding on taxiways.

Question 14: What is the correct procedure when a warning light activates during operation?

Turn off the dashboard display
Increase speed to reach a service station faster
Safely reduce speed, pull over when possible, and assess the situation (Correct answer)
Ignore it and continue to the destination

Correct answer: Safely reduce speed, pull over when possible, and assess the situation

Warning lights indicate potential safety issues and should be addressed promptly by safely stopping and investigating.

Question 15: What is the 'specific range' of an aircraft?

The altitude band at which the aircraft achieves its highest cruise efficiency
The nautical miles flown per unit of fuel burned, used to find the most fuel-efficient cruise condition (Correct answer)
The fuel quantity expressed as a fraction of total tank capacity
The maximum range achievable at maximum gross weight with full fuel tanks

Correct answer: The nautical miles flown per unit of fuel burned, used to find the most fuel-efficient cruise condition

Specific range (SR) is analogous to miles per gallon for aircraft; dispatchers use SR curves to select the most economical cruise altitude and speed.

Question 16: An airport is listed as an alternate on a dispatch release. Under 14 CFR 121.625, the forecast for the alternate at ETA must show at least:

Ceiling 500 feet and visibility 1 mile above approach minimums
Standard VFR conditions of 3,000 feet and 5 miles
Clear skies and unrestricted visibility only
Ceiling 200 feet above the lowest applicable approach minimum and visibility at least 1 statute mile above that minimum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ceiling 200 feet above the lowest applicable approach minimum and visibility at least 1 statute mile above that minimum

FAR 121.625 requires an alternate forecast of at least 200 ft above the lowest usable approach minimum and 1 SM above the minimum visibility.

Question 17: A dispatcher is filing a flight plan for a flight that will cross multiple Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) boundaries. Who is responsible for ensuring the route is coordinated across all centers?

The airline's government affairs team pre-coordinates all routes
The pilot-in-command calls each center upon entry
The dispatcher must individually coordinate with each ARTCC
ATC handles inter-center coordination once the flight plan is filed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ATC handles inter-center coordination once the flight plan is filed

Once a proper IFR flight plan is filed, ATC assumes responsibility for inter-facility coordination along the route.

Question 18: An aircraft dispatcher must be certificated and hold which FAA certificate?

Airline Transport Pilot Certificate
Flight Engineer Certificate
Commercial Pilot Certificate
Aircraft Dispatcher Certificate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Aircraft Dispatcher Certificate

FAR Part 65 requires individuals exercising dispatcher authority under Part 121 to hold an FAA Aircraft Dispatcher Certificate.

Question 19: A dispatcher is tracking a flight that has reported an engine fire that has been extinguished. The crew wants to continue to destination. What should the dispatcher consider?

Jointly evaluate aircraft performance with one engine inoperative, remaining fuel, weather at destination vs. diversion airports, and maintenance availability (Correct answer)
Contact the FAA for permission to continue the flight
Continue the flight — the crew has the final say and the fire is out
Immediately order the crew to divert regardless of their assessment

Correct answer: Jointly evaluate aircraft performance with one engine inoperative, remaining fuel, weather at destination vs. diversion airports, and maintenance availability

The dispatcher must conduct a thorough joint safety analysis with the crew, weighing all performance and logistical factors before agreeing to continue.

Question 20: What is the primary purpose of a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) in route planning?

To provide a standardized, obstacle-cleared departure path from an airport to the enroute structure (Correct answer)
To assign ATC priority to heavy aircraft during departure
To specify the cruise altitude for the first segment of flight
To reduce fuel burn during the climb phase only

Correct answer: To provide a standardized, obstacle-cleared departure path from an airport to the enroute structure

SIDs provide a standardized, obstacle-cleared transition from the departure airport to the enroute airway structure, simplifying ATC clearances.

Question 21: What does obstacle clearance analysis ensure in departure performance planning?

That airport vehicles avoid the taxiway path during pushback
That adequate vertical separation exists between aircraft at cruise altitude
That ground crews have cleared all equipment from the runway environment
That the aircraft can climb above all terrain and obstacles in the departure path even with one engine inoperative (Correct answer)

Correct answer: That the aircraft can climb above all terrain and obstacles in the departure path even with one engine inoperative

Obstacle clearance analysis verifies the aircraft meets the required climb gradient to safely clear all obstacles in the departure corridor following an engine failure.

Question 22: What is the correct procedure when a dispatcher identifies a significant change in destination weather after a flight has already departed?

Contact the destination ATC tower directly to hold the flight
Wait to see if the flight crew notices the change on their own weather feed
File an amended flight plan with FAA AFSS
Relay the updated weather to the crew and reassess the alternate requirements on the dispatch release (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Relay the updated weather to the crew and reassess the alternate requirements on the dispatch release

Any significant weather change at the destination must be relayed to the crew, and alternate requirements must be revalidated in real time.

Question 23: A dispatcher is planning an ETOPS flight. One purpose of the ETOPS planning process is to identify adequate airports within what parameter?

Within two hours at normal cruise speed regardless of engine count
Within the authorized diversion time threshold (e.g., 120, 180 minutes) based on the aircraft's one-engine-inoperative speed and ETOPS rating (Correct answer)
Within range of any airport that has an ILS approach
Within 500 nautical miles of the planned route centerline regardless of aircraft type

Correct answer: Within the authorized diversion time threshold (e.g., 120, 180 minutes) based on the aircraft's one-engine-inoperative speed and ETOPS rating

ETOPS planning requires identifying suitable airports within the operator's authorized diversion time (e.g., 120 or 180 minutes) at approved single-engine speed.

Question 24: Which factor is NOT a standard input for aircraft takeoff performance calculations?

Airport pressure altitude and field elevation
Headwind or tailwind component on the runway
The age distribution of passengers aboard (Correct answer)
Ambient temperature at the departure airport

Correct answer: The age distribution of passengers aboard

Passenger age has no bearing on performance calculations; temperature, altitude, and wind are the standard environmental inputs used in performance charts.

Question 25: What is the maximum number of aircraft a dispatcher may simultaneously have under their authority per FAA guidance?

5 aircraft per dispatcher
No federal limit; determined by carrier's OpSpecs (Correct answer)
25 aircraft
10 aircraft

Correct answer: No federal limit; determined by carrier's OpSpecs

Federal regulations do not specify a maximum number; it is defined in the carrier's FAA-approved operations specifications based on workload and system capability.

Question 26: Under 14 CFR 121.533, if a dispatcher and a pilot-in-command disagree about whether a flight can be safely conducted, the resolution is:

The dispatcher's release is binding once signed, regardless of PIC objection
The Director of Operations casts the deciding vote
The PIC's decision always overrides the dispatcher on safety matters
Either the dispatcher or the PIC may withhold authorization, and the flight may not proceed if either objects (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Either the dispatcher or the PIC may withhold authorization, and the flight may not proceed if either objects

Under the joint-authority model, either the dispatcher or the PIC may decline to release or continue a flight; both must concur for the flight to operate.

Question 27: What is 'density altitude,' and why is it critical to aircraft performance calculations?

Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature, representing the altitude at which aircraft performance actually occurs (Correct answer)
The altitude of maximum air density in the atmosphere
The altitude at which a pressure system is centered
The actual altitude above MSL corrected for magnetic variation

Correct answer: Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature, representing the altitude at which aircraft performance actually occurs

Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temperature deviation from standard; high density altitude (hot/high/humid conditions) means the air is less dense, significantly degrading aircraft engine and aerodynamic performance.

Question 28: What is scope creep?

A type of project risk assessment
A normal part of every project
The planned addition of new features
Uncontrolled expansion of project scope without corresponding adjustments (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Uncontrolled expansion of project scope without corresponding adjustments

Scope creep occurs when additional requirements are added without adjusting timeline, budget, or resources, potentially jeopardizing the project.

Question 29: What is 'accelerate-stop distance' used for in dispatch planning?

The minimum runway length at which the aircraft can reach cruise airspeed
The total runway needed to reach V1 and then bring the aircraft to a full stop if takeoff is rejected (Correct answer)
The distance measured from the terminal gate to the runway threshold
The runway length consumed while decelerating from touchdown speed to taxi speed

Correct answer: The total runway needed to reach V1 and then bring the aircraft to a full stop if takeoff is rejected

Accelerate-stop distance is a critical performance figure ensuring enough runway exists to abort a takeoff at V1 and stop safely within the pavement.

Question 30: When a route segment passes through a Special Use Airspace (SUA) such as a Military Operations Area (MOA), what must a dispatcher verify before releasing the flight?

That the aircraft is a military-contracted carrier, which grants automatic access
MOAs do not require dispatcher attention because they only affect VFR flights
Whether the MOA is active during the planned time of flight, and if so, whether an alternative route or altitude avoids the active SUA (Correct answer)
That the crew has been briefed, which satisfies all SUA requirements

Correct answer: Whether the MOA is active during the planned time of flight, and if so, whether an alternative route or altitude avoids the active SUA

Dispatchers must check NOTAM and scheduling information to determine SUA activity and plan around active restricted airspace when necessary.

Question 31: What does the acronym AED stand for?

Automated External Defibrillator (Correct answer)
Advanced External Decompressor
Advanced Emergency Device
Automated Electrical Diagnostic

Correct answer: Automated External Defibrillator

An AED (Automated External Defibrillator) analyzes heart rhythm and delivers an electrical shock if needed to restore normal rhythm.

Question 32: What is the primary hazard when an aircraft departs with its CG aft of the approved limit?

The aircraft becomes pitch-unstable and may pitch up uncontrollably (Correct answer)
The aircraft consumes significantly less fuel during cruise
The aircraft experiences improved fuel efficiency on long routes
The aircraft achieves a faster initial climb rate after liftoff

Correct answer: The aircraft becomes pitch-unstable and may pitch up uncontrollably

An aft CG beyond limits reduces or eliminates the nose-down pitching moment, making the aircraft dangerously unstable and potentially uncontrollable in pitch.

Question 33: What weather condition is indicated when a rawinsonde observation shows a sharp temperature inversion and very low dew point spread at a low altitude?

Upper-level jet stream activity
A stable layer that suppresses convection and may trap pollutants (Correct answer)
Conditions favorable for thunderstorm development
Rapidly improving VFR conditions

Correct answer: A stable layer that suppresses convection and may trap pollutants

A temperature inversion creates a stable layer where warmer air overlies cooler air, suppressing vertical mixing and convection while potentially trapping moisture and pollutants below.

Question 34: Under 14 CFR Part 121, which party has the authority to delay or cancel a flight if they determine conditions are unsafe?

ATC only
Either the PIC or the aircraft dispatcher (Correct answer)
The airline operations control center supervisor
The FAA Flight Standards District Office

Correct answer: Either the PIC or the aircraft dispatcher

Under Part 121, both the PIC and the aircraft dispatcher share joint authority and responsibility for the safety of the flight.

Question 35: Which of the following correctly describes the 'sterile cockpit rule' and its relevance to passenger safety?

Flight crew may not perform non-essential duties below 10,000 feet MSL (Correct answer)
The cockpit door must be locked at all times during flight
Passengers must remain silent during cruise flight
Flight attendants may not enter the cockpit during any phase of flight

Correct answer: Flight crew may not perform non-essential duties below 10,000 feet MSL

FAR 121.542 prohibits non-essential activities in the cockpit below 10,000 feet MSL to ensure full crew attention during critical phases.

Question 36: A dispatcher learns that volcanic ash has been reported along a flight's planned route mid-flight. What is the correct sequence of actions?

Contact the crew immediately, provide SIGMET information, and jointly determine a reroute (Correct answer)
File a PIREP, then wait for the crew to request rerouting
Issue a new dispatch release and forward it to ATC without contacting the crew
Notify only the company meteorologist and let the captain decide independently

Correct answer: Contact the crew immediately, provide SIGMET information, and jointly determine a reroute

The dispatcher must immediately relay hazardous meteorological information to the crew and jointly coordinate a safe reroute per FAR 121.601.

Question 37: A dispatcher is reviewing performance data for a flight departing from a high-altitude airport in summer. Compared to sea-level conditions, which combination of effects is correct?

Shorter takeoff roll required and improved climb gradient
Same takeoff roll but significantly reduced cruise performance
Longer takeoff roll required and reduced climb gradient (Correct answer)
No performance difference since indicated airspeed governs takeoff

Correct answer: Longer takeoff roll required and reduced climb gradient

High density altitude (high elevation + high temperature) reduces engine thrust and aerodynamic lift, increasing takeoff distance and reducing climb gradient.

Question 38: Which communication technique is most effective for verifying understanding?

Providing written instructions only
Asking the person to explain the information back in their own words (Correct answer)
Repeating the same information louder
Nodding and saying "I understand"

Correct answer: Asking the person to explain the information back in their own words

The teach-back method confirms understanding by having the person explain the information in their own words.

Question 39: When performing CPR on an adult, what is the recommended compression depth?

At least 2 inches (5 cm) (Correct answer)
At least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
At least 4 inches (10 cm)
At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)

Correct answer: At least 2 inches (5 cm)

Current guidelines recommend chest compressions of at least 2 inches deep for adults to effectively circulate blood.

Question 40: What must a dispatcher do if a pilot in command refuses to accept a dispatch release?

Accept the refusal and advise the director of operations; the flight may not depart (Correct answer)
Report the refusal to ATC immediately
Override the PIC's decision with management approval
File an immediate certificate action with the FAA

Correct answer: Accept the refusal and advise the director of operations; the flight may not depart

If a PIC refuses a dispatch release, the dispatcher must notify operations management and the flight cannot depart without mutual agreement between the PIC and dispatcher.

Question 41: A dispatcher notices that an en route SIGMET is issued for severe turbulence directly along the filed route. The best initial action is to:

Cancel the flight immediately without consulting the crew
Notify the crew and coordinate a reroute with ATC (Correct answer)
Reduce cruise altitude by 2,000 feet and continue
Continue as filed since SIGMETs are advisory only

Correct answer: Notify the crew and coordinate a reroute with ATC

The dispatcher must inform the crew and work with ATC to find a safe alternate routing around the hazardous area.

Question 42: Why is maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW) important in fuel planning?

It is used solely to calculate the required landing weight at the destination
It sets the minimum fuel that must be present at departure for structural reasons
It specifies the maximum fuel quantity that may be loaded into the wing tanks
It limits how much payload can be loaded before fuel is added to avoid overstressing the wing roots (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It limits how much payload can be loaded before fuel is added to avoid overstressing the wing roots

MZFW is a structural limit protecting the wing bending moment; if MZFW would be exceeded, payload must be reduced regardless of the fuel required.

Question 43: When calculating fuel requirements for a flight, which of the following is a critical factor?

The cost of fuel
The aircraft's maximum weight capacity
The number of passengers onboard
The distance to be flown and expected weather conditions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The distance to be flown and expected weather conditions

Calculating fuel requirements is paramount for flight safety and efficiency. The distance to be flown directly determines the baseline fuel needed, while expected weather conditions, such as headwinds or potential diversions, significantly impact fuel consumption and necessitate additional reserves. Both factors are crucial for ensuring the aircraft has sufficient fuel for the entire journey and any contingencies.

Question 44: A dispatcher's flight experiences a runway excursion on landing with injuries reported. After notifying emergency services, what documentation must the dispatcher preserve immediately?

Only the dispatch release signed by the captain
Passenger manifest and baggage records only
The aircraft maintenance log from the previous 30 days only
All operational records including dispatch release, weather data, fuel orders, MEL items, NOTAMs, and communications logs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All operational records including dispatch release, weather data, fuel orders, MEL items, NOTAMs, and communications logs

All operational documents related to the flight become accident investigation evidence and must be preserved immediately to prevent alteration or loss.

Question 45: A dispatcher is tracking a flight and loses radio contact for 30 minutes. What is the appropriate action?

Attempt contact via all available means and notify ATC and company emergency procedures if contact cannot be established (Correct answer)
File a report and wait for the flight to land
Transfer responsibility to the next dispatcher on shift
Automatically declare an emergency on the flight's behalf

Correct answer: Attempt contact via all available means and notify ATC and company emergency procedures if contact cannot be established

The dispatcher must exhaust all communication options and activate emergency protocols if contact cannot be re-established, coordinating with ATC and company procedures.

Question 46: During route planning, a dispatcher identifies that a waypoint is listed as 'RNAV only' on the planned route. Which navigation requirement does this impose?

The route requires GPS only and no other navigation aids
RNAV waypoints are optional and may be bypassed without a notation
The aircraft must carry dual INS systems for all RNAV waypoints
The aircraft must be RNAV-equipped and the crew must be trained and authorized for RNAV operations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The aircraft must be RNAV-equipped and the crew must be trained and authorized for RNAV operations

RNAV-only waypoints require the aircraft to be properly equipped and the operator to have RNAV authorization; traditional ground-based nav alone is insufficient.

Question 47: What is an Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) approach and when would a dispatcher consider it?

A ground radar system used to track baggage carts on the ramp
A satellite-based approach procedure requiring no ground equipment
A radar-vectored instrument approach used when ILS or other precision approaches are unavailable (Correct answer)
A visual approach used during clear day operations only

Correct answer: A radar-vectored instrument approach used when ILS or other precision approaches are unavailable

An ASR approach uses ground radar to vector the aircraft to the runway, providing a non-precision approach option when precision approaches are out of service.

Question 48: When a dispatcher releases a flight under 14 CFR Part 121, authority over the flight is held by:

The airline's Director of Operations exclusively
The dispatcher alone until wheels-up
The pilot-in-command alone from the moment of release
Both the dispatcher and the pilot-in-command jointly (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Both the dispatcher and the pilot-in-command jointly

Under Part 121, operational control is shared jointly between the aircraft dispatcher and the pilot-in-command throughout the flight.

Question 49: What does 'payload' mean in aircraft weight terminology?

The revenue-generating weight consisting of passengers, baggage, and freight (Correct answer)
The aircraft's total weight at the moment of departure
The total weight of fuel loaded for the flight
The combined weight of the operating crew and their equipment

Correct answer: The revenue-generating weight consisting of passengers, baggage, and freight

Payload is the revenue portion of useful load — passengers, baggage, and cargo — and directly determines profitability of the flight.

Question 50: An aircraft reports fuel contamination and must land immediately. The nearest suitable airport is not on the approved alternates list. What should the dispatcher do?

Instruct the captain to continue to the planned alternate
Refuse to authorize the diversion until the airport is added to OpSpecs
Contact the FAA for a special waiver before allowing the diversion
Support the captain's decision to land at the nearest suitable airport — safety of life supersedes OpSpecs restrictions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Support the captain's decision to land at the nearest suitable airport — safety of life supersedes OpSpecs restrictions

An emergency situation allows the PIC (and dispatcher) to deviate from regulations and OpSpecs to the extent necessary to meet the emergency (FAR 121.557).

Question 51: Under the FAA's Safety Management System (SMS), what is the primary goal of the 'Safety Assurance' component?

Training new employees on safety procedures
Documenting accidents for regulatory reporting
Continuously monitoring effectiveness of risk controls (Correct answer)
Identifying all potential hazards in operations

Correct answer: Continuously monitoring effectiveness of risk controls

Safety Assurance continuously monitors and evaluates SMS performance to ensure risk controls remain effective over time.

Question 52: A dispatcher receives word that the destination airport has just lost its ILS and only a VOR approach is now available. The aircraft is airborne. The dispatcher should FIRST:

Immediately divert the aircraft to the filed alternate
Wait until the aircraft is within 1 hour of destination before acting
Assess whether the current weather at the destination meets the VOR approach minimums and contact the crew (Correct answer)
Issue a new dispatch release for the alternate airport

Correct answer: Assess whether the current weather at the destination meets the VOR approach minimums and contact the crew

The dispatcher must first evaluate whether minimums are still met and communicate with the crew so a joint decision can be made.

Question 53: Under 14 CFR 121.631, what action is required when a flight is cleared for an IFR flight but the alternate airport is not listed in the operations specifications?

The dispatcher must notify the FAA FSDO before release
An alternate airport must be specified unless weather conditions meet the 1-2-3 rule exception (Correct answer)
The flight may proceed without an alternate if weather is forecast VFR
The flight may only operate under VFR weather conditions

Correct answer: An alternate airport must be specified unless weather conditions meet the 1-2-3 rule exception

An alternate is not required only when the destination weather is forecast to be at least 2,000-foot ceiling and 3 SM visibility 1 hour before through 1 hour after ETA (the 1-2-3 rule).

Question 54: What does the term 'OROCA' stand for and how is it used in route planning?

Overwater Route Oceanic Clearance Altitude; used for oceanic planning only
Off-Route Oceanic Clearance Altitude; used for ETOPS planning
Off-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude; provides 1,000/2,000 ft obstacle clearance in off-airway areas (Correct answer)
Official Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude; replaces MEA on all routes

Correct answer: Off-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude; provides 1,000/2,000 ft obstacle clearance in off-airway areas

OROCA (Off-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude) provides the same 1,000/2,000 ft obstacle clearance as MEA but applies to off-airway off-route areas.

Question 55: What should be done in the event of an environmental spill or release?

Cover it and continue work
Wait for it to evaporate naturally
Contain the spill, notify appropriate authorities, and begin cleanup procedures (Correct answer)
Report it only at the end of the shift

Correct answer: Contain the spill, notify appropriate authorities, and begin cleanup procedures

Immediate containment, notification, and cleanup are essential to minimize environmental damage and meet regulatory requirements.

Question 56: What regulation establishes the qualification requirements for an aircraft dispatcher certificate?

14 CFR Part 61 Subpart B
14 CFR Part 65 Subpart C (Correct answer)
14 CFR Part 121 Subpart T
14 CFR Part 91 Subpart K

Correct answer: 14 CFR Part 65 Subpart C

14 CFR Part 65 Subpart C sets out the eligibility, knowledge, and practical test requirements for the Aircraft Dispatcher Certificate.

Question 57: What is a NOTAM and why is it important to an aircraft dispatcher?

A required maintenance log entry for each departure
A passenger notification regarding gate changes
An air traffic control clearance issued before pushback
A Notice to Air Missions reporting temporary changes to airspace, airports, or navaids affecting flight safety (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A Notice to Air Missions reporting temporary changes to airspace, airports, or navaids affecting flight safety

NOTAMs alert dispatchers and pilots to temporary hazards, closures, or changes such as taxiway closures, runway construction, or navigational aid outages.

Question 58: Which term describes the phenomenon where an aircraft accumulates ice on its airframe from supercooled large water droplets (SLDs) that extend beyond the protected surfaces?

Rime icing
Frost accumulation
Glaze icing
Freezing drizzle icing / SLD icing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Freezing drizzle icing / SLD icing

Supercooled Large Droplet (SLD) icing is especially hazardous because large droplets run back beyond de-iced/anti-iced surfaces, accumulating ice in unprotected areas and disrupting airfoil performance.

Question 59: A dispatcher is coordinating a flight plan amendment to reroute around a convective SIGMET. Who has final authority to accept or reject the amended routing while the aircraft is airborne?

ATC, because they control airspace
The pilot-in-command, in coordination with the dispatcher (Correct answer)
The Director of Operations at the airline
The dispatcher alone, since they hold operational control

Correct answer: The pilot-in-command, in coordination with the dispatcher

While both share operational control, the PIC has final authority for the safety of the flight and must agree to the routing change.

Question 60: Which of the following best describes the function of Area Navigation (RNAV) in modern route planning?

It allows aircraft to fly any desired path within the coverage of referenced navigation aids or onboard self-contained systems, without flying directly over ground stations (Correct answer)
It is only authorized for overwater operations beyond 50 NM from shore
It restricts navigation to pre-approved airways only
It requires aircraft to fly directly over each VOR along the route

Correct answer: It allows aircraft to fly any desired path within the coverage of referenced navigation aids or onboard self-contained systems, without flying directly over ground stations

RNAV allows flexible routing by computing positions from multiple nav sources, freeing aircraft from the constraint of flying directly over ground-based stations.

Question 61: How long must an air carrier retain dispatch release records under 14 CFR Part 121?

30 days
3 months (Correct answer)
90 days
6 months

Correct answer: 3 months

14 CFR 121.695 requires dispatch releases and load manifests to be retained for at least 3 months.

Question 62: If an air carrier's dispatch records are stored electronically, what must the system be able to do?

Reproduce records in legible form and protect them from unauthorized alteration (Correct answer)
Sync with the FAA's central database in real time
Automatically delete records after 30 days
Encrypt all records with 256-bit AES encryption minimum

Correct answer: Reproduce records in legible form and protect them from unauthorized alteration

Electronic recordkeeping systems must be able to reproduce records in legible form and include safeguards against unauthorized changes.

Question 63: A dispatcher discovers that the weather at the destination has deteriorated below minimums after the aircraft has departed. What is the FIRST regulatory obligation?

Advise the pilot in command and coordinate a diversion if needed (Correct answer)
File a NASA safety report
Notify ATC immediately
Cancel the flight release

Correct answer: Advise the pilot in command and coordinate a diversion if needed

The dispatcher must advise the PIC of any condition that could affect flight safety so they can jointly decide on appropriate action.

Question 64: What is the maximum allowable takeoff weight (MTOW) of an aircraft?

The maximum certified weight at which an aircraft may begin its takeoff roll (Correct answer)
The maximum weight permitted during cruise flight
The maximum weight of fuel that can be loaded
The maximum weight at which an aircraft may land

Correct answer: The maximum certified weight at which an aircraft may begin its takeoff roll

MTOW is the maximum weight, as certified by the manufacturer and regulator, at which an aircraft is permitted to commence takeoff.

Question 65: What is 'contingency fuel' in a dispatcher's fuel plan?

Additional fuel carried to cover unexpected deviations, increased fuel burn, or extended routing (Correct answer)
Fuel reserved exclusively for taxi operations at the destination airport
Fuel set aside for the exclusive use of the flight crew during the trip
Fuel loaded as dead weight to meet minimum structural weight requirements

Correct answer: Additional fuel carried to cover unexpected deviations, increased fuel burn, or extended routing

Contingency fuel provides a safety margin for forecast errors, routing changes, ATC-mandated deviations, or higher-than-planned fuel burn during the flight.

Question 66: A dispatcher notices a SIGMET for severe turbulence has been issued for a flight's current route segment. The crew has not responded to two ACARS messages. What is the next step?

Contact ATC and request they relay the SIGMET information to the flight immediately (Correct answer)
File a safety report and wait for the crew to land before discussing
Log the SIGMET and the unanswered messages; the crew is likely aware via onboard weather radar
Declare a communications emergency with the FAA

Correct answer: Contact ATC and request they relay the SIGMET information to the flight immediately

ATC can relay urgent safety information to aircraft on its frequency, making it the appropriate escalation path when ACARS communication fails.

Question 67: A dispatcher planning an overseas flight must include an ICAO standard flight plan. Which ICAO flight plan field contains the departure aerodrome identifier?

Field 7
Field 13 (Correct answer)
Field 9
Field 15

Correct answer: Field 13

ICAO flight plan Field 13 contains the departure aerodrome and estimated off-block time.

Question 68: What is zero fuel weight (ZFW)?

The minimum operating weight required for dispatch
The weight of the aircraft with completely empty fuel tanks
The actual weight of the aircraft after all fuel is consumed
The maximum allowable weight of the aircraft including payload but excluding usable fuel (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The maximum allowable weight of the aircraft including payload but excluding usable fuel

ZFW is the maximum structural weight permitted with no usable fuel, constraining how much payload can be loaded before fuel is added.

Question 69: What is the purpose of waste management hierarchy?

To classify waste by color coding only
To determine waste disposal costs
To prioritize waste management strategies from most to least preferred (Correct answer)
To track waste generation volumes only

Correct answer: To prioritize waste management strategies from most to least preferred

The waste hierarchy prioritizes prevention, reduction, reuse, recycling, recovery, and disposal in that order.

Question 70: What does 'MEA GAP' indicate on an IFR enroute chart?

A segment where VOR navigation signal reception is not guaranteed at the MEA, requiring a higher altitude for continuous reception (Correct answer)
An area where terrain clearance is less than standard
A gap in radar coverage along the route
A break in the airway where no altitude is published

Correct answer: A segment where VOR navigation signal reception is not guaranteed at the MEA, requiring a higher altitude for continuous reception

An MEA GAP indicates that on that segment the navigation signal may not be received at the MEA, and pilots/dispatchers must be aware of potential navigation unreliability.

Question 71: A Part 121 dispatcher may not exercise dispatcher authority unless holding what document?

An Airline Transport Pilot certificate
A company operations specification
A current Aircraft Dispatcher Certificate issued under 14 CFR Part 65 (Correct answer)
An FAA Letter of Authorization

Correct answer: A current Aircraft Dispatcher Certificate issued under 14 CFR Part 65

14 CFR Part 65 Subpart C requires an Aircraft Dispatcher Certificate for anyone exercising dispatch authority at a Part 121 carrier.

Question 72: A flight attendant reports a passenger is using a portable electronic device (PED) that may be interfering with aircraft systems. What should the crew do?

Instruct the passenger to turn off the device and report the incident per company procedures (Correct answer)
File a PIREP immediately
Declare an emergency with ATC
Request a maintenance hold at the destination

Correct answer: Instruct the passenger to turn off the device and report the incident per company procedures

The crew should immediately require the passenger to turn off the suspected device and document the incident per airline safety reporting procedures.

Question 73: Under 14 CFR 121.591, a dispatcher must have immediate access to which information during a flight?

Weather reports, NOTAMs, and operational data for all flights being monitored (Correct answer)
Passenger manifest and crew rest records
ATC strip data for each sector the flight traverses
Maintenance logs for each aircraft in the fleet

Correct answer: Weather reports, NOTAMs, and operational data for all flights being monitored

14 CFR 121.591 requires dispatchers to have continuous access to weather, NOTAM, and other operational data for all flights under their control.

Question 74: Under 14 CFR Part 121, what is the minimum domestic reserve fuel required at the destination?

Fuel to fly for 60 minutes at maximum continuous power above the destination
Fuel to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise fuel consumption after reaching the destination (Correct answer)
Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed above the destination airport
Fuel to fly for 20 minutes at approach speed in the terminal area

Correct answer: Fuel to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise fuel consumption after reaching the destination

14 CFR 121.639 requires domestic flag operations to carry enough fuel to reach the airport and then fly for 45 additional minutes at normal cruise.

Question 75: What is 'holding fuel' in a dispatcher's fuel plan?

Fuel allocated to the descent and deceleration phase of the approach
Fuel assigned exclusively to ground power unit operations before departure
Fuel kept physically isolated in a reserve tank and never consumed during normal flight
Fuel loaded to allow the aircraft to fly holding patterns at or near the destination for a planned duration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fuel loaded to allow the aircraft to fly holding patterns at or near the destination for a planned duration

Holding fuel accounts for the possibility that ATC or weather will require the aircraft to circle at the destination before being cleared for approach.

Question 76: What should a professional do upon discovering a colleague is practicing while impaired?

Confront the colleague publicly
Wait to see if problems develop
Ignore it to protect the colleague
Report through appropriate channels as required by professional duty (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Report through appropriate channels as required by professional duty

Professionals have a duty to report impaired colleagues to protect clients and help the colleague receive assistance.

Question 77: Under 14 CFR Part 121, a dispatcher must immediately notify the PIC if a weather hazard develops along the route. What is the dispatcher's obligation if the PIC cannot be reached?

File a PIREP and take no further action
Notify the carrier's operations center and document all attempts to contact the PIC (Correct answer)
Continue the flight without action
Divert the aircraft without PIC knowledge

Correct answer: Notify the carrier's operations center and document all attempts to contact the PIC

If a PIC cannot be reached, the dispatcher must notify the operations center and document all contact attempts to ensure the safety chain remains intact.

Question 78: What is the floor of Class A airspace in the contiguous United States?

18,000 feet MSL (Correct answer)
10,000 feet MSL
24,000 feet MSL
14,500 feet MSL

Correct answer: 18,000 feet MSL

Class A airspace begins at 18,000 feet MSL (FL180), where all operations must be conducted under IFR.

Question 79: When calculating true course on a sectional chart, a dispatcher measures the course as 275°. The variation in the area is 10°E. What is the magnetic course?

285°
265° (Correct answer)
275°
255°

Correct answer: 265°

Magnetic course = True course − East variation (or + West variation); 275° − 10°E = 265° magnetic.

Question 80: During pre-flight planning, a dispatcher discovers that an NOtam indicates a temporary flight restriction (TFR) over the departure airport due to a VIP movement. The TFR will be in effect during the planned departure window. The dispatcher should:

File a reroute to avoid the TFR laterally while keeping the same departure time
Depart anyway since TFRs do not apply to Part 121 carriers
Cancel the flight and rebook all passengers
Delay departure until the TFR expires or coordinate an exception with ATC if operationally required (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Delay departure until the TFR expires or coordinate an exception with ATC if operationally required

TFRs apply to all aircraft including Part 121 carriers; the dispatcher must delay, obtain an exception, or coordinate alternative departure timing with ATC.

Question 81: Which ICAO phraseology should a dispatcher instruct a crew to use when reporting their position over an oceanic waypoint on HF radio?

'SELCAL check' followed by the assigned SELCAL code
'Mayday mayday' followed by position and heading
'Position report' followed by aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, next waypoint, ETA next waypoint, and subsequent waypoint (Correct answer)
'Traffic advisory' followed by aircraft callsign and coordinates

Correct answer: 'Position report' followed by aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, next waypoint, ETA next waypoint, and subsequent waypoint

Standard oceanic position reports include aircraft identification, position, time, altitude, next waypoint, ETA, and the waypoint after next.

ADX - Aircraft Dispatcher Exam

The FAA Aircraft Dispatcher (ADX) Knowledge Test is an 80-question, multiple-choice examination required for the Aircraft Dispatcher certificate under 14 CFR Part 65. It covers regulations, meteorology, navigation, aircraft performance, flight planning, and emergency procedures. Candidates have 3 hours and must score at least 70% to pass.

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

Checking for saved progress...

Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds