ADAT Clinical Sciences Flashcards
7 cards from real ADAT practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 ADAT Clinical Sciences flashcards as text
A 9-year-old presents with a fractured permanent incisor exposing a pinpoint of pulp within one hour of trauma. Which treatment offers the best prognosis for continued root development?
Answer: Direct pulp cap
A small, recent pulp exposure in a young permanent tooth is ideally managed with direct pulp capping (or partial pulpotomy) to preserve vitality and allow continued root growth.
Which type of dental caries progresses most rapidly and is often associated with frequent sugar exposure and reduced salivary flow?
Answer: Rampant caries
Rampant caries is a rapidly progressing, widespread decay linked to high sugar intake and diminished saliva, as seen in early childhood or xerostomia.
During a crown preparation, which finish line design provides the most conservative reduction but can be difficult to read on an impression?
Answer: Knife-edge (feather)
A knife-edge (feather) margin is the most conservative of tooth structure but produces an indistinct margin that is hard to identify.
A patient reports pain that lingers for minutes after a cold stimulus is removed. This finding is most consistent with which pulpal diagnosis?
Answer: Irreversible pulpitis
Pain that lingers after removal of a thermal stimulus indicates irreversible pulpitis, requiring endodontic therapy or extraction.
Which occlusal scheme is generally recommended for complete dentures to improve stability during lateral movements?
Answer: Balanced occlusion
Balanced occlusion, with simultaneous bilateral contacts in excursions, improves complete denture stability and retention.
A biopsy of a white oral lesion that cannot be wiped off and has no other identifiable cause is reported as epithelial dysplasia. What is the clinical term for this lesion?
Answer: Leukoplakia
Leukoplakia is a clinical diagnosis of exclusion for a non-wipeable white patch, and dysplasia on biopsy indicates premalignant potential.
Which muscle is primarily responsible for protrusion of the mandible?
Answer: Lateral pterygoid
The lateral pterygoid muscles, acting bilaterally, protrude the mandible and are also key in depression and lateral movements.