ADEX Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ADEX facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. During instrumentation, a hygienist is using a modified pen grasp. The middle finger's primary role in this grasp is to: → Rest lightly on the shank to guide the working-end and feel vibrations.
2. How many different ways are there to use fluoride? → three
3. Which cranial nerve provides primary sensory innervation to the teeth and periodontium? → CN V (Trigeminal)
4. A patient on long-term corticosteroid therapy may require supplemental corticosteroids before stressful dental procedures due to risk of which condition? → Addisonian crisis (adrenal insufficiency)
5. The greater palatine nerve exits through the greater palatine foramen and primarily innervates which area? → The posterior hard palate and adjacent palatal gingiva
6. The parotid duct (Stensen's duct) opens into the oral cavity opposite which tooth? → Maxillary second molar
7. Which analgesic mechanism is responsible for the anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, and analgesic effects of ibuprofen? → Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes and prostaglandin synthesis
8. Which of the following methods provides the ultimate verification of sterilization success by directly challenging the sterilization process? → Using a biological indicator (spore test) on a weekly basis.
9. How often should one clean their teeth each day? → Twice
10. Which of the following dental materials is best known for its unique ability to release fluoride over time, providing a therapeutic, caries-inhibiting effect? → Glass ionomer cement
11. What kind of education are dental hygienists expected to have? → Medical emergency management and cardiopulmonary resuscitation
12. Which type of waste disposal should be done in a biohazard bag? → Non-sharp solid
13. Paresthesia following an inferior alveolar nerve block is most often associated with which local anesthetic? → Articaine 4%
14. The primary objective of non-surgical periodontal therapy (NSPT) is to: → Remove and control microbial biofilms and their byproducts.
15. Which of the following is considered the STRONGEST single predictor for future caries development in a patient? → Past caries experience.
16. The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is classified as which type of synovial joint? → Ginglymoarthrodial (combined hinge and gliding) joint
17. Which of the following is considered subjective data collected during the assessment phase of the dental hygiene process of care? → The patient's chief complaint of "my gums bleed when I brush."
18. Which food group is considered protective against dental caries due to its ability to stimulate saliva and raise plaque pH? → Hard cheeses
19. A patient taking warfarin requires post-operative analgesia after a dental hygiene procedure. Which analgesic is safest to recommend? → Acetaminophen
20. How many different forms of exposure may ionized radiation cause in the body? → two
21. What should you do if your mast becomes wet? → Change it immediately
22. Chlorhexidine gluconate (0.12%) mouth rinse used in the dental setting is classified as which type of agent? → Broad-spectrum antibacterial and antiplaque agent
23. A patient on a very low carbohydrate (ketogenic) diet asks about oral health effects. Which finding is most expected? → Halitosis from ketone production
24. What is the vomiting-inducing substance that bulimics frequently abuse? → Emetics
25. The pterygomandibular raphe serves as an attachment point for which two muscles? → Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor
26. What portion of the dental tool actually touches the patient? → Working-end
27. Which of the following is a contraindication to epinephrine use as a vasoconstrictor in local anesthesia? → Uncontrolled hyperthyroidism with tachyarrhythmia
28. There are how many different kinds of instrument handles or ends? → two
29. When using a Gracey curette for subgingival calculus removal, what is the ideal angulation between the face of the blade and the tooth surface? → Greater than 45 but less than 90 degrees
30. A patient with chronic kidney disease on a phosphate-restricted diet may be at increased risk for which oral finding? → Enamel demineralization and reduced remineralization