ADAT ADAT Clinical Sciences 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A patient presents with a deep periodontal pocket, vertical bone loss, and a positive furcation involvement on a mandibular molar. Which classification best describes a furcation defect that can be probed through but is not visible clinically?
- Glickman Grade I
- Glickman Grade II
- Glickman Grade III (Correct answer)
- Glickman Grade IV
Correct answer: Glickman Grade III
Glickman Grade III is a through-and-through furcation that can be probed completely but remains covered by soft tissue and is not clinically visible.
Question 2: Which local anesthetic is contraindicated in patients with a documented allergy to para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)?
- Lidocaine
- Articaine
- Mepivacaine
- Benzocaine (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Benzocaine
Benzocaine is an ester anesthetic metabolized to PABA, making it contraindicated in PABA-allergic patients, unlike the amide anesthetics.
Question 3: A radiograph shows a well-defined radiolucency at the apex of a non-vital tooth that has been asymptomatic for years. Which lesion is most likely?
- Periapical granuloma
- Acute apical abscess
- Condensing osteitis
- Periapical cyst (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Periapical cyst
A long-standing, asymptomatic, well-defined periapical radiolucency associated with a non-vital tooth is most consistent with a periapical (radicular) cyst.
Question 4: In endodontics, which irrigant is primarily used to remove the smear layer's inorganic component?
- Sodium hypochlorite
- EDTA (Correct answer)
- Chlorhexidine
- Hydrogen peroxide
Correct answer: EDTA
EDTA is a chelating agent that dissolves the inorganic mineral portion of the smear layer, while sodium hypochlorite dissolves organic tissue.
Question 5: Which restorative material chemically bonds to tooth structure and releases fluoride, making it useful for high-caries-risk patients?
- Composite resin
- Glass ionomer cement (Correct answer)
- Amalgam
- Zinc oxide eugenol
Correct answer: Glass ionomer cement
Glass ionomer cement chemically bonds to enamel and dentin and releases fluoride, offering anticariogenic benefit.
Question 6: A patient on long-term oral bisphosphonate therapy needs an extraction. What is the most serious associated complication to counsel them about?
- Dry socket
- Medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (Correct answer)
- Excessive bleeding
- Delayed anesthesia onset
Correct answer: Medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw
Bisphosphonates are associated with medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ), a risk after invasive dental procedures.
Question 7: Which cranial nerve provides general sensory innervation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
- Facial nerve (VII)
- Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
- Lingual branch of trigeminal (V3) (Correct answer)
- Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
Correct answer: Lingual branch of trigeminal (V3)
The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal (V3), carries general sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
A patient presents with a deep periodontal pocket, vertical bone loss, and a positive furcation involvement on a mandibular molar.
Which classification best describes a furcation defect that can be probed through but is not visible clinically?