ACE Legal, Ethical & Reporting Standards 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Under the Federal Rules of Evidence (FRE) Rule 901, what must a forensic examiner establish before digital evidence is admissible?
- Chain of custody only
- Authentication that the evidence is what it purports to be (Correct answer)
- The evidence was collected by law enforcement
- A court-approved hash algorithm was used
Correct answer: Authentication that the evidence is what it purports to be
FRE Rule 901 requires authentication—demonstrating that the evidence is what the proponent claims it to be.
Question 2: A forensic examiner discovers child exploitation material during a civil litigation investigation. What is the correct course of action?
- Continue the civil investigation and note the finding in the final report
- Immediately delete the material to protect the victim
- Stop examination and report to law enforcement per mandatory reporting obligations (Correct answer)
- Inform only the retaining attorney and await instructions
Correct answer: Stop examination and report to law enforcement per mandatory reporting obligations
Discovery of CSAM triggers mandatory reporting obligations under 18 U.S.C. § 2258A; examiners must stop and report to law enforcement.
Question 3: Which doctrine allows a court to exclude evidence obtained through unlawful means, even if the evidence itself is valid?
- Best Evidence Rule
- Exclusionary Rule (Fruit of the Poisonous Tree) (Correct answer)
- Chain of Custody Doctrine
- Work Product Privilege
Correct answer: Exclusionary Rule (Fruit of the Poisonous Tree)
The Exclusionary Rule, including the 'fruit of the poisonous tree' doctrine, bars admission of evidence derived from unconstitutional searches.
Question 4: When writing a forensic report, an examiner should attribute findings to:
- Personal opinion based on years of experience
- The suspect's known behavior patterns
- Objectively observed artifacts and data with supporting technical detail (Correct answer)
- Information provided by the retaining attorney
Correct answer: Objectively observed artifacts and data with supporting technical detail
Reports must be objective, attributing conclusions to verifiable artifacts and technical findings rather than speculation or hearsay.
Question 5: The Stored Communications Act (18 U.S.C. § 2701) primarily governs:
- Physical search of computing devices at the border
- Law enforcement access to emails and data stored by third-party service providers (Correct answer)
- Chain of custody for cloud-based evidence
- Encryption standards for forensic tools
Correct answer: Law enforcement access to emails and data stored by third-party service providers
The SCA regulates how and when government entities may compel electronic communications providers to disclose stored communications.
Question 6: An examiner working for the defense discovers evidence that clearly inculpates the defendant. Ethically, the examiner should:
- Destroy or withhold the evidence to protect the client
- Disclose the finding to the retaining defense attorney only
- Immediately contact the prosecution directly
- Include the finding in the report and let the attorney decide on disclosure strategy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Include the finding in the report and let the attorney decide on disclosure strategy
The examiner's ethical duty is to report findings accurately to the retaining counsel; legal strategy decisions belong to the attorney.
Question 7: Which type of legal hold notice is typically issued to preserve electronically stored information (ESI) in anticipation of litigation?
- Search warrant
- Litigation hold (preservation letter) (Correct answer)
- Subpoena duces tecum
- Ex parte order
Correct answer: Litigation hold (preservation letter)
A litigation hold directs parties to preserve potentially relevant ESI once litigation is reasonably anticipated, as required by Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.
Under the Federal Rules of Evidence (FRE) Rule 901, what must a forensic examiner establish before digital evidence is admissible?