ACE - Airport Certified Employee Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What does the term 'SIDA' stand for in airport security compliance?
- Secured and Inspected Departure Area
- Security Incident Detection Area
- Standard Identity Documentation Area
- Security Identification Display Area (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Security Identification Display Area
SIDA stands for Security Identification Display Area, which are restricted zones where airport-issued credentials must be visibly displayed.
Question 2: A controller tells an aircraft 'Taxi to runway 28L via Alpha, hold short of runway 10.' What must the pilot do?
- Taxi to runway 28L and cross runway 10 without stopping
- Taxi via taxiway Alpha and stop before entering runway 10 (Correct answer)
- Acknowledge with 'Wilco' and taxi at discretion
- Request progressive taxi instructions before moving
Correct answer: Taxi via taxiway Alpha and stop before entering runway 10
A 'hold short' instruction requires the aircraft to stop before the runway hold-short markings of the specified runway.
Question 3: What is the standard color code for 'Immediate' priority patients in the START triage system?
- Yellow
- Green
- Black
- Red (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Red
Red tags in START triage indicate immediate priority — patients with life-threatening injuries who require rapid intervention.
Question 4: Which area of the Incident Command System structure is responsible for collecting, evaluating, and disseminating information about the incident?
- Public Information Officer
- Planning Section (Correct answer)
- Logistics Section
- Operations Section
Correct answer: Planning Section
The Planning Section collects, evaluates, and displays incident intelligence to support decision-making and situation reports.
Question 5: A Declared Distance is an FAA-defined measurement that represents the length available and suitable for satisfying a specific aircraft operational requirement. TODA stands for:
- Total Operational Distance Available
- Taxiway Obstacle Departure Area
- Takeoff Distance Available (Correct answer)
- Threshold Offset Departure Authorization
Correct answer: Takeoff Distance Available
TODA (Takeoff Distance Available) equals the TORA plus any clearway, representing the maximum distance over which an aircraft can initiate its initial climb after rotation.
Question 6: What does the TSA's 'Quiet Skies' program primarily focus on?
- Managing air traffic control communications
- Reducing noise pollution from aircraft near residential areas
- Monitoring travelers identified as potential security risks on domestic flights (Correct answer)
- Screening cargo on domestic routes
Correct answer: Monitoring travelers identified as potential security risks on domestic flights
The Quiet Skies program deploys air marshals to monitor certain travelers flagged as potential security concerns on domestic flights.
Question 7: What is the correct way to transmit the number '500' in aviation radio communications?
- Five-zero-zero (Correct answer)
- Five hundred
- Half a thousand
- Fiver double zero
Correct answer: Five-zero-zero
FAA and ICAO standards require numbers to be transmitted digit-by-digit: five-zero-zero, to eliminate ambiguity.
Question 8: Which TSA program is designed to expedite the screening process for pre-approved, low-risk travelers?
- TSA PreCheck (Correct answer)
- Global Entry
- Secure Flight
- NEXUS
Correct answer: TSA PreCheck
TSA PreCheck allows pre-approved travelers to use expedited screening lanes and keep shoes, belts, and laptops in their bags.
Question 9: Which of the following best describes the primary objective of the Safety Assurance (SA) component within an airport's Safety Management System (SMS)?
- To establish management's commitment to safety and define the organizational structure for managing it.
- To provide safety training and communication to foster a positive safety culture among all airport employees.
- To proactively identify hazards and assess risks before they lead to incidents.
- To evaluate the effectiveness of existing safety risk controls and continuously monitor safety performance. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To evaluate the effectiveness of existing safety risk controls and continuously monitor safety performance.
Safety Assurance (SA) is the component of SMS focused on continuous monitoring and evaluation. It ensures that the risk controls implemented through the Safety Risk Management (SRM) process are working effectively and that the airport is meeting its safety objectives. This involves activities like audits, evaluations, and analyzing safety data.
Question 10: When an airport declares an Alert Level 3 (full emergency), what action should non-essential personnel take?
- Contact the FAA tower directly for instructions
- Evacuate or shelter in place per the AEP (Correct answer)
- Report to the emergency command post for assignment
- Continue normal operations to avoid disruption
Correct answer: Evacuate or shelter in place per the AEP
Non-essential personnel should evacuate or shelter in place according to the Airport Emergency Plan during a full emergency.
Question 11: What is the primary purpose of a 'just culture' within an SMS?
- To ensure every safety report results in a reward
- To eliminate all disciplinary action for safety violations
- To transfer legal liability from employees to management
- To encourage reporting by distinguishing between acceptable errors and willful misconduct (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To encourage reporting by distinguishing between acceptable errors and willful misconduct
Just culture promotes honest reporting by differentiating honest mistakes and system failures from negligent or intentional violations, without blanket immunity.
Question 12: Which standard governs the accessibility requirements airports must meet for passengers with disabilities within terminal buildings?
- FAA Part 139
- 49 CFR Part 27
- ICAO Annex 9
- ADA Standards for Accessible Design under the DOJ/DOT (Correct answer)
Correct answer: ADA Standards for Accessible Design under the DOJ/DOT
The ADA Standards for Accessible Design, enforced by DOJ and DOT, establish requirements for accessible routes, restrooms, gates, and services in airport terminals.
Question 13: Which of the following is an example of 'piggybacking' or 'tailgating' in airport security?
- An unauthorized person following an authorized person through an access-controlled door without presenting credentials (Correct answer)
- A vendor delivering goods to a sterile area during peak hours
- A passenger entering a boarding gate area before their flight is called
- Two authorized employees entering a SIDA together using one badge
Correct answer: An unauthorized person following an authorized person through an access-controlled door without presenting credentials
Tailgating is when an unauthorized person exploits an authorized person's access to slip through a controlled entry point without proper credentials.
Question 14: Which of the following is a key performance indicator (KPI) for airport parking facility management?
- Runway occupancy time
- Terminal building square footage
- Number of aircraft departures per day
- Occupancy rate and revenue per available parking space (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Occupancy rate and revenue per available parking space
Occupancy rate and revenue per available space are standard KPIs that reflect how efficiently the parking facility is being utilized and monetized.
Question 15: Which document must an airport certificated under Part 139 develop after a Wildlife Hazard Assessment identifies an unacceptable risk?
- Environmental Impact Statement
- Airport Safety Self-Inspection Report
- Wildlife Hazard Management Plan (Correct answer)
- Integrated Pest Management Plan
Correct answer: Wildlife Hazard Management Plan
FAR 139.337(c) requires that airports with unacceptable wildlife hazards develop and implement a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan approved by the FAA.
Question 16: During a runway incursion event, who has authority to immediately halt all runway traffic?
- Only the airport director
- The airline operations center
- Airport security only
- Any ATC controller or airport operations supervisor with radio authority (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Any ATC controller or airport operations supervisor with radio authority
Any ATC controller and authorized airport operations personnel can issue immediate stop instructions to prevent a collision.
Question 17: An airport employee observes an individual without a visible ID badge attempting to follow them through a secure door into the SIDA. According to standard security protocols, what is the employee's primary responsibility?
- Ignore the individual as they may be authorized but have forgotten their badge.
- Challenge the individual to determine their authorization to be in the area. (Correct answer)
- Allow the individual to enter but monitor their activities closely.
- Immediately report the individual to their direct supervisor.
Correct answer: Challenge the individual to determine their authorization to be in the area.
Airport employees are required to challenge anyone in a security-sensitive area who is not properly displaying an authorized ID badge. This 'challenge procedure' is a critical first line of defense against unauthorized access. Reporting to a supervisor is secondary to the immediate challenge, and ignoring or allowing entry violates security regulations.
Question 18: Which practice best reduces the volume of glycol-contaminated stormwater requiring treatment at an airport?
- Diluting deicing fluid with water before application
- Using sand as an alternative to liquid deicing agents on taxiways
- Collecting spent deicing fluid at remote pads before it reaches storm drains (Correct answer)
- Applying deicing fluid only during daylight hours
Correct answer: Collecting spent deicing fluid at remote pads before it reaches storm drains
Centralized deicing pads with collection systems capture spent glycol before it reaches stormwater drains, greatly reducing treatment volumes.
Question 19: A Day-Night Average Sound Level (DNL) of 65 dB is the standard threshold above which the FAA considers residential land use to be:
- Conditionally compatible
- Preferred
- Incompatible (Correct answer)
- Fully compatible
Correct answer: Incompatible
FAA policy under Part 150 identifies residential areas exposed to DNL 65 dB or higher as incompatible with airport operations without mitigation.
Question 20: Strike reports submitted to the FAA are used in part to calculate the Bird/Other Wildlife Strike Index for an airport. What does a rising index indicate?
- Improved wildlife management outcomes
- More aircraft movements than the previous period
- An increasing rate of strikes relative to aircraft operations (Correct answer)
- Better pilot reporting compliance
Correct answer: An increasing rate of strikes relative to aircraft operations
A rising strike index indicates more strikes per unit of aircraft operations, signaling that wildlife hazard risk is increasing and management actions may need intensification.
Question 21: Under airport security regulations, 'escorting' an uncleared individual in a secure area requires the escort to:
- Notify airport police within one hour of the escort
- Obtain written permission from TSA before the escort begins
- Simply accompany the individual to the entrance of the secure area
- Maintain visual contact and control of the individual at all times (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maintain visual contact and control of the individual at all times
An escort is responsible for continuously monitoring and controlling the uncleared individual throughout their presence in the secure area.
Question 22: What is the minimum friction coefficient value that triggers a 'POOR' runway condition report under the FAA's Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM)?
- Below 0.30
- Below 0.40
- Below 0.15
- Below 0.25 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Below 0.25
Under the RCAM, a measured friction coefficient below 0.25 corresponds to a 'POOR' runway braking condition assessment.
Question 23: What is the correct order of the four pillars of ICAO's SMS framework?
- Safety Policy → Safety Risk Management → Safety Assurance → Safety Promotion (Correct answer)
- Safety Risk Management → Safety Policy → Safety Assurance → Safety Promotion
- Safety Promotion → Safety Assurance → Safety Risk Management → Safety Policy
- Safety Assurance → Safety Policy → Safety Promotion → Safety Risk Management
Correct answer: Safety Policy → Safety Risk Management → Safety Assurance → Safety Promotion
ICAO's four SMS pillars are listed in order as: Safety Policy, Safety Risk Management, Safety Assurance, and Safety Promotion.
Question 24: When should airport personnel use the word 'NEGATIVE' in radio communications?
- To report a system malfunction
- To indicate 'No' or to reject an incorrect readback (Correct answer)
- To request a frequency change
- To indicate poor radio signal quality
Correct answer: To indicate 'No' or to reject an incorrect readback
'Negative' is the standard aviation radiotelephony word meaning 'No' or used to correct an erroneous readback.
Question 25: Aircraft deicing fluid runoff is a major environmental concern at airports primarily because it can:
- Corrode runway pavement markings
- Deplete dissolved oxygen in receiving waters (Correct answer)
- Increase soil pH to toxic levels
- Generate volatile organic compounds in terminal buildings
Correct answer: Deplete dissolved oxygen in receiving waters
When glycol-based deicing fluids enter water bodies, microbial decomposition consumes dissolved oxygen, threatening aquatic life.
Question 26: What information is typically included in a Notices to Air Missions (NOTAM) for a runway closure?
- Runway identifier, reason for closure, and effective start and end times (Correct answer)
- Passenger terminal hours and parking rates
- Aircraft weight limits and fuel availability
- Airline schedules affected by the closure
Correct answer: Runway identifier, reason for closure, and effective start and end times
A runway closure NOTAM includes the specific runway designation, cause of closure, and the period during which the closure is in effect.
Question 27: Which of the following is a disqualifying criminal offense under 49 CFR Part 1542 for unescorted access to a secured area?
- Felony conviction for armed robbery within the past 10 years (Correct answer)
- Parking violations on airport property
- A minor civil infraction
- A misdemeanor traffic violation
Correct answer: Felony conviction for armed robbery within the past 10 years
Felony convictions for crimes such as armed robbery within the past 10 years are among the disqualifying offenses under 49 CFR Part 1542 CHRC requirements.
Question 28: In an SMS risk matrix, a hazard rated as 'unlikely' in probability but 'catastrophic' in severity would typically be classified as:
- Acceptable with monitoring only
- Acceptable after management review
- Acceptable with no action required
- Unacceptable, requiring immediate mitigation (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Unacceptable, requiring immediate mitigation
Catastrophic severity combined with any probability level typically places a risk in the unacceptable region, demanding immediate corrective action.
Question 29: Which federal agency oversees civil aviation regulations in the U.S.?
- FAA (Correct answer)
- OSHA
- EPA
- TSA
Correct answer: FAA
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) is the primary federal agency in the U.S. responsible for overseeing and regulating all aspects of civil aviation. This includes establishing and enforcing safety standards for airports, aircraft, and air traffic control, as well as certifying pilots and maintenance personnel. The FAA's regulations ensure the safe and efficient operation of the national airspace system.
Question 30: A 'coverage covenant' in an airport revenue bond indenture typically requires the airport to maintain a debt service coverage ratio of at least:
- 1.00x
- 1.25x (Correct answer)
- 0.75x
- 2.50x
Correct answer: 1.25x
A 1.25x coverage covenant is the most common minimum threshold in US airport revenue bond indentures.
Question 31: What is the primary function of a Constant Current Regulator (CCR) in airfield lighting?
- Regulate voltage to each fixture
- Control light intensity based on visibility
- Provide backup power during outages
- Maintain steady current through the series circuit (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maintain steady current through the series circuit
A CCR keeps the current constant in a series circuit regardless of the number of operating lamps.
Question 32: An airport maintenance technician needs to bring a set of tools, including a large wrench and a screwdriver, into the sterile area to perform repairs at a gate. Which of the following statements is true regarding these items?
- The technician must store the tools in a checked bag and retrieve them after their shift.
- The technician can bypass screening as they are an authorized employee.
- The tools are permitted but must be declared and may be subject to additional screening by the TSA. (Correct answer)
- All tools are considered prohibited items and cannot be brought into the sterile area.
Correct answer: The tools are permitted but must be declared and may be subject to additional screening by the TSA.
While many tools are prohibited for passengers in carry-on baggage, they are permissible for authorized airport employees who require them for their job duties. However, these items must still be screened, and their necessity must be justifiable. Employees and their belongings are subject to screening when entering secure areas.
Question 33: Under 49 CFR Part 1544, air carriers are required to conduct screening of passengers and property using which personnel?
- TSA-approved screeners who meet federal qualification standards (Correct answer)
- Any airline employee who has completed company orientation
- Private contractors selected solely by the airline without TSA involvement
- State law enforcement officers assigned to the airport
Correct answer: TSA-approved screeners who meet federal qualification standards
49 CFR Part 1544 requires that passenger screening be performed by individuals who meet TSA-approved qualification and training standards.
Question 34: An aircraft reports it is 'minimum fuel.' What does this declaration indicate?
- The aircraft is requesting immediate vectors to the nearest airport
- The aircraft has declared a fuel emergency
- The aircraft has enough fuel but any delay could result in an emergency (Correct answer)
- The aircraft has less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining by regulation
Correct answer: The aircraft has enough fuel but any delay could result in an emergency
'Minimum fuel' advises ATC that fuel state is such that any undue delay could cause an actual emergency, but it is not yet a declared emergency.
Question 35: Under NIMS, which organizational element is responsible for tracking personnel accountability during an incident?
- Logistics Section (Correct answer)
- Finance/Administration Section
- Planning Section
- Operations Section
Correct answer: Logistics Section
The Logistics Section manages resource tracking, including personnel accountability and equipment assignment during an incident.
Question 36: What is the primary environmental benefit of encouraging public transit and shared-ride services at airports?
- It decreases the number of required runway operations
- It reduces single-occupancy vehicle trips, decreasing traffic congestion and air emissions (Correct answer)
- It reduces aircraft noise levels near residential areas
- It lowers water consumption in terminal facilities
Correct answer: It reduces single-occupancy vehicle trips, decreasing traffic congestion and air emissions
Promoting transit and shared rides reduces vehicle miles traveled, resulting in lower carbon emissions, improved air quality, and reduced traffic congestion on airport access roads.
Question 37: An airport operator notices a retention pond within the AOA is attracting large flocks of waterfowl. The FIRST recommended step is to:
- Install a perimeter fence around the pond
- Conduct a habitat assessment and consider modifying or eliminating the attractant (Correct answer)
- Immediately fill the pond with concrete
- File an FAA Form 5200-7
Correct answer: Conduct a habitat assessment and consider modifying or eliminating the attractant
The foundational principle of wildlife hazard management is to remove or modify attractants; a habitat assessment identifies options before costly or irreversible actions are taken.
Question 38: During an aircraft incident, the first airport employee on scene must make an emergency radio transmission. What is the MOST critical piece of information to convey in the initial report?
- The number of people involved.
- The weather conditions at the scene.
- The type of aircraft.
- The precise location of the incident. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The precise location of the incident.
While all pieces of information are valuable, the immediate priority for an emergency response is knowing exactly where to go. Providing a precise location (e.g., "at the intersection of Runway 10 and Taxiway Charlie") allows Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting (ARFF) and other responders to be dispatched without delay.
Question 39: Which FAA regulation requires airports to have a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan?
- 49 CFR Part 1542
- 14 CFR Part 91
- 14 CFR Part 77
- 14 CFR Part 139 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 14 CFR Part 139
14 CFR Part 139 requires certificated airports to develop and implement a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan if certain triggering events occur.
Question 40: When a pilot declares a MAYDAY, what priority does ATC give to that aircraft?
- Priority only during IFR conditions
- Priority only if the runway is clear
- Standard sequencing with a notation
- Immediate priority over all other traffic (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Immediate priority over all other traffic
A MAYDAY declaration signals a life-threatening emergency, granting the aircraft absolute priority over all other traffic.
Question 41: Why is relocation of trapped nuisance wildlife generally considered a poor long-term solution at airports?
- It increases habituation to hazing devices
- It requires more staff than lethal methods
- Relocation is prohibited under the Migratory Bird Treaty Act
- Relocated animals often return, and the habitat problem that attracted them remains (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Relocated animals often return, and the habitat problem that attracted them remains
Without eliminating the attractant, relocated wildlife typically returns or is replaced by other individuals drawn to the same resource, making relocation a temporary fix at best.
Question 42: What is the purpose of a 'hot zone' in a hazardous materials incident at an airport?
- Staging area for mutual aid resources
- Zone for media and public information officers
- Area reserved for command post operations
- Contaminated area where only properly equipped responders may enter (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Contaminated area where only properly equipped responders may enter
The hot zone is the contaminated area immediately surrounding a hazmat incident where only responders with appropriate PPE may operate.
Question 43: Under 49 CFR Part 1542, which party is responsible for ensuring that air carriers operating at the airport comply with applicable security requirements?
- The airport operator (Correct answer)
- The airline's TSA-designated representative
- The FAA regional office
- The TSA Federal Security Director
Correct answer: The airport operator
The airport operator bears responsibility for ensuring that air carriers and other tenants operating on its premises comply with applicable security regulations.
Question 44: The primary purpose of an Airport Layout Plan (ALP) is to:
- Provide an official graphical record of existing and proposed airport facilities for FAA approval (Correct answer)
- Document terminal lease agreements
- Outline the airport's annual capital budget
- Specify runway lighting specifications
Correct answer: Provide an official graphical record of existing and proposed airport facilities for FAA approval
The ALP is the FAA-approved master drawing set depicting all airport facilities, land, and airspace, and must be updated whenever significant changes occur.
Question 45: What is the primary goal of triage during an airport mass casualty incident?
- Sort patients by injury severity to maximize survival (Correct answer)
- Transport all victims to the nearest hospital simultaneously
- Document the cause of each injury for investigation
- Identify victims by name for family notification
Correct answer: Sort patients by injury severity to maximize survival
Triage prioritizes victims by injury severity so that limited medical resources are allocated to those most likely to benefit.
Question 46: Which federal regulation specifically governs airport security programs at commercial service airports?
- 49 CFR Part 1520
- 49 CFR Part 1542 (Correct answer)
- 49 CFR Part 139
- 14 CFR Part 77
Correct answer: 49 CFR Part 1542
49 CFR Part 1542 establishes TSA's Airport Security Program requirements for commercial service airports.
Question 47: What is the minimum required electrical reliability for runway lighting at a Part 139 certificated airport serving air carrier operations?
- 99% (Correct answer)
- 90%
- 95%
- 100%
Correct answer: 99%
FAA standards require 99% system reliability for primary airfield lighting circuits at certificated airports.
Question 48: What is the role of the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) as defined by TSA regulations?
- To conduct daily ARFF drills and maintain firefighting equipment readiness logs
- To manage the badging office and issue all SIDA credentials to airport employees
- To serve as the primary TSA contact responsible for implementing and overseeing the Airport Security Program (Correct answer)
- To screen all checked baggage and passengers at the screening checkpoint
Correct answer: To serve as the primary TSA contact responsible for implementing and overseeing the Airport Security Program
The ASC is the airport operator's designated point of contact with TSA and is responsible for the day-to-day implementation of the Airport Security Program.
Question 49: How often must airports conduct self-inspections to remain Part 139 compliant?
- Every 72 hours
- Daily (Correct answer)
- Weekly
- Once a month
Correct answer: Daily
Part 139 of the Federal Aviation Regulations mandates that airports conduct self-inspections daily. This frequent inspection schedule ensures that the airport operating environment is continuously monitored for safety hazards, operational discrepancies, and compliance with all regulatory standards. Daily checks are crucial for identifying and mitigating potential issues promptly, maintaining a safe and efficient airfield.
Question 50: An unauthorized individual is discovered in the SIDA. Under federal regulations, what must the airport operator do?
- Issue a verbal warning and escort them out
- Detain the individual, notify TSA, and investigate the breach (Correct answer)
- Revoke all employee access credentials immediately
- File a written report within 72 hours
Correct answer: Detain the individual, notify TSA, and investigate the breach
Discovery of an unauthorized individual in the SIDA constitutes a security breach requiring immediate detention, TSA notification, and a full investigation.
Question 51: Obstruction lights on structures near the airport must meet which color and flash requirements per FAA regulations?
- Amber flashing, minimum 500 candela
- Red (steady or flashing) or white strobe, as specified by FAA (Correct answer)
- Steady green, at least 100 candelas
- Blue flashing, 360-degree coverage
Correct answer: Red (steady or flashing) or white strobe, as specified by FAA
FAA specifies red steady/flashing or high-intensity white strobes for obstruction lighting based on structure height and location.
Question 52: What is the maximum liquid volume allowed in a single container in a passenger's carry-on baggage through TSA screening?
- 4 ounces (118 ml)
- 6 ounces (177 ml)
- 3.4 ounces (100 ml) (Correct answer)
- 2 ounces (60 ml)
Correct answer: 3.4 ounces (100 ml)
TSA's 3-1-1 rule limits liquids to containers of 3.4 oz (100 ml) or less per item in carry-on bags.
Question 53: In an Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting (ARFF) response, what does the term 'fire attack' refer to?
- Direct application of suppression agents onto the fire (Correct answer)
- Initial alarm notification to the fire station
- Establishing a water supply from a hydrant
- Securing the perimeter around the aircraft
Correct answer: Direct application of suppression agents onto the fire
Fire attack refers to the direct application of extinguishing agents on the fire to suppress and extinguish it.
Question 54: Pavement Condition Index (PCI) scores range from 0 to 100; a score between 10 and 25 indicates pavement in which condition category?
- Poor
- Good
- Fair
- Very Poor / Failed (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Very Poor / Failed
PCI scores of 10–25 fall in the 'Very Poor' to 'Failed' range, indicating severe distress requiring reconstruction rather than routine maintenance.
Question 55: An airport's Pollution Prevention (P2) plan addresses hazardous materials primarily by:
- Reporting all chemical inventories to the FAA annually
- Reducing the generation of hazardous waste at the source through substitution and efficiency (Correct answer)
- Centralizing all hazardous waste storage in a single large warehouse
- Maximizing the purchase of bulk chemicals to reduce delivery trips
Correct answer: Reducing the generation of hazardous waste at the source through substitution and efficiency
Pollution prevention focuses on source reduction—using less toxic materials and more efficient processes—to minimize hazardous waste generation before it occurs.
Question 56: The Runway Incursion Severity Classification uses categories A through D, where Category A represents:
- A vehicle operating without clearance in non-movement areas
- A minor deviation with no risk of collision
- A runway closure for maintenance
- A situation in which collision was narrowly avoided (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A situation in which collision was narrowly avoided
FAA Category A runway incursions are the most serious, involving situations where a collision was narrowly avoided and immediate evasive action was required.
Question 57: What type of lamp is most commonly used in modern LED airfield lighting compared to older incandescent systems?
- LED (Light Emitting Diode) (Correct answer)
- Xenon arc
- Halogen tungsten
- Metal halide HID
Correct answer: LED (Light Emitting Diode)
LED lamps are now standard in modern airfield lighting due to their long life, low energy use, and consistent output.
Question 58: According to 14 CFR Part 139, what is the minimum frequency for conducting a self-inspection of the airfield for a certificated airport?
- Weekly, with additional inspections after unusual weather events.
- Twice daily, once during the day and once at night.
- Only after an aircraft accident or incident has occurred.
- Daily, and also at night if the airport serves air carriers during hours of darkness. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Daily, and also at night if the airport serves air carriers during hours of darkness.
14 CFR Part 139.327 requires certificate holders to inspect the airport daily to ensure compliance. FAA Advisory Circular 150/5200-18D further clarifies that if the airport serves air carriers during hours of darkness, a nighttime inspection is also required.
Question 59: Which of the following is considered a 'prohibited item' that can NEVER be brought through a passenger security checkpoint?
- Explosive devices (Correct answer)
- Liquids over 3.4 oz
- Aerosol sunscreen
- Laptops in carry-on bags
Correct answer: Explosive devices
Explosive devices are absolutely prohibited items that cannot be transported through checkpoints under any circumstances.
Question 60: What does a flashing yellow light at a runway hold short position typically indicate to ground vehicle operators?
- Stop and wait for ATC clearance before crossing (Correct answer)
- Cleared to cross the runway
- Runway is closed
- Taxiway construction ahead
Correct answer: Stop and wait for ATC clearance before crossing
Flashing yellow runway guard lights warn vehicle operators to stop and obtain clearance before entering the runway.
Question 61: Under the Airport Security Program, what is the required action when an airport access control badge is reported lost or stolen?
- Deactivate it within 24 hours and report to TSA
- Suspend the badge holder pending investigation
- Deactivate it immediately and report to the airport security office (Correct answer)
- Issue a replacement and file a report at end of month
Correct answer: Deactivate it immediately and report to the airport security office
A lost or stolen badge must be immediately deactivated to prevent unauthorized access, and the loss must be promptly reported to the airport security office.
Question 62: An airport seeking to demonstrate environmental stewardship by reducing its net carbon emissions to zero follows a pathway known as:
- LEED Platinum Designation
- Airport Carbon Accreditation (ACA) (Correct answer)
- ISO 14001 Certification
- FAA Sustainable Airport Master Plan
Correct answer: Airport Carbon Accreditation (ACA)
Airport Carbon Accreditation is an independent program that certifies airports at various levels of carbon management, up to full carbon neutrality.
Question 63: A maintenance work order is generated for an unserviceable Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) system on Runway 18. According to FAA Advisory Circular 150/5340-26C, which of the following is a critical maintenance task to ensure the PAPI provides accurate vertical guidance?
- Replacing all lamps with a higher wattage for increased brightness.
- Verifying and adjusting the unit's aiming angle with a certified clinometer. (Correct answer)
- Issuing a NOTAM for the outage before beginning any work.
- Repainting the PAPI housing units to improve daytime visibility.
Correct answer: Verifying and adjusting the unit's aiming angle with a certified clinometer.
The most critical maintenance task for a PAPI system is to ensure its vertical alignment is correct, as this directly affects the glide path information given to pilots. FAA Advisory Circulars and maintenance best practices require the use of a specialized tool, a clinometer, to verify and accurately adjust the aiming angle of the PAPI units.
Question 64: An airport worker notices a bag left unattended in a sterile area for over 20 minutes. The correct response is to:
- Announce over the PA for the owner to claim it, then discard if unclaimed
- Open the bag to identify the owner
- Move the bag to lost and found
- Notify security immediately and do not touch or move the bag (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Notify security immediately and do not touch or move the bag
Unattended bags are treated as potential threats — security must be notified immediately and the bag should not be touched.
Question 65: Which skill is most essential for airport staff providing customer service?
- Speed reading
- Effective communication (Correct answer)
- Technical writing
- Sales pitching
Correct answer: Effective communication
Effective communication is the most essential skill for airport staff providing customer service, as they interact with a diverse global population, often under stressful conditions. This includes active listening, clear verbal instructions, empathy, and the ability to convey information accurately and calmly. Strong communication skills help resolve issues, provide assistance, and ensure a positive and smooth experience for passengers.
Question 66: The primary standard governing the design and construction of airport buildings and structures in the United States is:
- ASCE 7 Wind Load Standard exclusively
- International Building Code (IBC) with local amendments (Correct answer)
- NFPA 415 (Standard on Airport Terminal Buildings)
- FAA Advisory Circular 150/5300-13
Correct answer: International Building Code (IBC) with local amendments
Airport terminal buildings must comply with the International Building Code as adopted and amended by the local jurisdiction, covering structural, fire, and life safety requirements.
Question 67: A series circuit airport lighting system fails completely when one lamp burns out. What component prevents this?
- Series isolation transformer (Correct answer)
- Constant current regulator
- Ground fault interrupter
- Voltage regulator
Correct answer: Series isolation transformer
Series isolation transformers allow individual lamps to fail without breaking the entire series circuit.
Question 68: Which type of airport emergency exercise tests plans and procedures without deploying actual resources in the field?
- Drill
- Tabletop exercise (Correct answer)
- Full-scale exercise
- Functional exercise
Correct answer: Tabletop exercise
A tabletop exercise involves key personnel discussing simulated scenarios in a low-stress environment without field deployment.
Question 69: What is the maximum civil penalty TSA may impose on an airport operator per violation per day under 49 CFR Part 1503?
- $1,000
- $50,000
- $10,000 (Correct answer)
- $100,000
Correct answer: $10,000
TSA may impose civil penalties of up to $10,000 per violation per day on airport operators found in noncompliance with federal security regulations.
Question 70: Which airfield lighting component must be installed in a way that it 'frangible' — meaning it breaks away on impact?
- Transformer vaults
- CCR enclosures
- Airfield light bases and fixtures (Correct answer)
- Underground cable conduit
Correct answer: Airfield light bases and fixtures
FAA requires airfield light fixtures and bases to be frangible so aircraft impacts do not cause structural damage to the aircraft.
Question 71: When airports apply for AIP discretionary grants, which federal agency reviews and approves those applications?
- DOT Office of Inspector General
- TSA
- FAA (Correct answer)
- CBP
Correct answer: FAA
The FAA administers the AIP and reviews applications to determine eligibility and approve discretionary grant awards.
Question 72: What is the maximum PFC level that the FAA currently authorizes airports to charge per enplaned passenger?
- $10.00
- $2.00
- $3.00
- $4.50 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: $4.50
The FAA authorizes a maximum PFC of $4.50 per enplaned passenger under current regulations.
Question 73: During an aircraft incident, the on-scene command and control function is managed from a designated location known as the:
- Emergency Operations Center (EOC)
- Airport Operations Center (AOC)
- Incident Command Post (ICP) (Correct answer)
- Joint Information Center (JIC)
Correct answer: Incident Command Post (ICP)
The Incident Command Post (ICP) is the field location established by the Incident Commander where the primary tactical-level, on-scene incident command functions are performed. The EOC is a separate, larger facility for overall coordination, while the AOC handles normal airport operations and the JIC manages public information.
Question 74: Airport capacity analysis tools such as the FAA Airport Capacity Model estimate capacity in terms of:
- Gate utilization percentages across a 24-hour period
- Square footage of terminal space per passenger
- Fuel throughput in gallons per aircraft operation
- Annual Service Volume (ASV) and hourly capacity for runway configurations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Annual Service Volume (ASV) and hourly capacity for runway configurations
FAA capacity models express runway system capacity as Annual Service Volume and hourly throughput rates under various conditions and runway configurations.
Question 75: Why is compliance with environmental regulations important for airports?
- To avoid fines and protect the environment (Correct answer)
- To enhance customer loyalty
- To allow unlimited construction
- To increase terminal size
Correct answer: To avoid fines and protect the environment
Compliance with environmental regulations is crucial for airports to avoid substantial fines and legal penalties from agencies like the EPA. Airports, as large industrial complexes, have significant environmental impacts related to noise, air quality, water runoff, and waste management. Adhering to these regulations demonstrates corporate responsibility, protects local ecosystems and communities from pollution, and ensures sustainable operations.
Question 76: Which of the following activities requires a construction safety phasing plan (CSPP) to be submitted to the FAA?
- Replacing airfield weather monitoring equipment inside an operations center
- Any construction or maintenance activity affecting movement areas or flight operations (Correct answer)
- Painting new parking stall lines in the terminal lot
- Installing new terminal gate seating within the terminal building
Correct answer: Any construction or maintenance activity affecting movement areas or flight operations
Any construction or major maintenance on or near the movement area or that could affect flight operations requires a CSPP per FAA AC 150/5370-2.
Question 77: What action must an airport take when an Airport Security Program amendment is required by TSA?
- Submit a counter-proposal within 30 days
- Appeal it to the FAA Administrator
- Implement it immediately upon TSA notification (Correct answer)
- Vote on it at the next board meeting
Correct answer: Implement it immediately upon TSA notification
When TSA requires an amendment to an Airport Security Program, the airport must implement it immediately as directed without delay.
Question 78: Which federal agency is primarily responsible for enforcing airport security regulations in the United States?
- FEMA
- FAA
- TSA (Correct answer)
- CBP
Correct answer: TSA
The Transportation Security Administration (TSA) is the primary federal agency responsible for enforcing aviation security regulations at U.S. airports.
Question 79: Which habitat modification technique most directly reduces grass-feeding bird activity on airfield turf?
- Planting dense shrubs along taxiways
- Maintaining grass height between 7 and 14 inches (Correct answer)
- Applying herbicide to create bare soil
- Installing bird-of-prey perches
Correct answer: Maintaining grass height between 7 and 14 inches
Tall grass (7–14 inches) obscures predators from ground-feeding birds and is too dense for comfortable movement, discouraging geese and starlings.
Question 80: What is the primary purpose of a Surface Movement Radar (SMR) system at large airports?
- To monitor and display vehicle and aircraft positions on the airport surface (Correct answer)
- To measure runway pavement friction in real time
- To detect aircraft at long range for sequencing
- To transmit weather data to approaching aircraft
Correct answer: To monitor and display vehicle and aircraft positions on the airport surface
SMR provides controllers with a real-time display of all traffic on taxiways and runways to prevent collisions on the airport surface.
Question 81: Which FAA advisory circular provides guidance on sustainable airport planning, including energy, water, and waste management?
- AC 150/5370-10
- AC 150/5100-17 (Correct answer)
- AC 150/5300-13
- AC 150/5360-9
Correct answer: AC 150/5100-17
AC 150/5100-17 guides airports on incorporating sustainability into planning and construction, covering energy efficiency, water conservation, and waste reduction.
Question 82: Which of the following best describes the term 'squawk' as used in ATC communications?
- Setting a specific transponder code assigned by ATC (Correct answer)
- A ground crew signal indicating pushback readiness
- An emergency beacon activation code
- A pilot's request to change runways
Correct answer: Setting a specific transponder code assigned by ATC
Controllers instruct pilots to 'squawk' a four-digit code on their transponder so radar can identify and track the aircraft.
Question 83: Under what condition may an airport operator shoot a species listed under the Endangered Species Act to protect aircraft?
- Under standing FAR Part 139 emergency authority
- Only with a Section 7 or Section 10 permit issued by USFWS (Correct answer)
- Whenever a strike is imminent and no other option exists
- When directed by FAA Air Traffic Control
Correct answer: Only with a Section 7 or Section 10 permit issued by USFWS
Taking any listed species requires explicit authorization from USFWS through the Endangered Species Act permitting process; no Part 139 provision overrides ESA protections.
Question 84: Runway Status Lights (RWSL) are an automated safety system designed primarily to:
- Alert pilots and drivers of unsafe runway entry conditions without ATC involvement (Correct answer)
- Provide approach slope guidance
- Replace the need for hold short markings
- Guide pilots to gate parking
Correct answer: Alert pilots and drivers of unsafe runway entry conditions without ATC involvement
RWSL automatically illuminates red lights to warn of unsafe runway conditions, supplementing ATC clearances.
Question 85: Foreign Object Debris (FOD) management on airfields is critical primarily because FOD can:
- Reduce terminal passenger throughput
- Interfere with ILS localizer signal accuracy
- Delay customs processing for international flights
- Be ingested into aircraft engines causing damage or loss of thrust (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Be ingested into aircraft engines causing damage or loss of thrust
FOD ingested into jet engines can cause compressor blade damage, engine failure, and catastrophic accidents, making FOD detection and removal a top safety priority.
Question 86: The Integrated Pest Management (IPM) approach used in airport facilities management emphasizes:
- Maximum pesticide application schedules to prevent infestations
- Reporting all pest sightings to the FAA immediately
- Using non-chemical controls first and pesticides only as a last resort (Correct answer)
- Quarterly fumigation of all airside structures
Correct answer: Using non-chemical controls first and pesticides only as a last resort
IPM prioritizes sanitation, exclusion, and biological controls, reserving chemical pesticides for situations where other methods are insufficient to manage pest populations.
Question 87: Which FAA document must an airport operator follow for installing new airfield lighting systems under a federal grant?
- FAR Part 77
- OSHA 29 CFR 1910
- FAA Advisory Circular 150/5340-30 (Correct answer)
- IES Lighting Handbook
Correct answer: FAA Advisory Circular 150/5340-30
AC 150/5340-30 is the design and installation standard required for federally funded airport lighting projects.
Question 88: Which of the following is a primary function of the Logistics Section within the Incident Command System (ICS) during an airport emergency?
- Arranging for personnel, supplies, and equipment. (Correct answer)
- Tracking all personnel and equipment resources.
- Developing the Incident Action Plan (IAP).
- Authorizing expenditures and processing claims.
Correct answer: Arranging for personnel, supplies, and equipment.
The Logistics Section is responsible for providing all services and support needs for the incident, which includes arranging for personnel, facilities, equipment, and supplies to support the achievement of the incident objectives.
Question 89: Under TSA's Airport Security Program, an airport operator must report a security incident to TSA within how many hours of discovery?
- 4 hours (Correct answer)
- 12 hours
- 24 hours
- 1 hour
Correct answer: 4 hours
TSA requires airports to report specified security incidents, including security breaches, within 4 hours of discovery under 49 CFR Part 1542.
Question 90: What is a displaced threshold?
- A threshold at the far end of the runway used for departures
- A temporary threshold used during ILS calibration
- A threshold that shifts during construction periods only
- A threshold moved inward from the physical runway end, restricting landing use of the pavement before it (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A threshold moved inward from the physical runway end, restricting landing use of the pavement before it
A displaced threshold is located at a point other than the physical beginning of the runway; the pavement before it may be used for takeoff but not landing.
Question 91: The primary purpose of an Environmental Assessment (EA) under NEPA is to:
- Establish wildlife management protocols
- Determine whether a federal action significantly affects the environment (Correct answer)
- Set emission limits for aircraft engines
- License new airport construction projects
Correct answer: Determine whether a federal action significantly affects the environment
An EA evaluates a proposed federal action's environmental impacts to decide whether a full Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is required.
Question 92: The Airport Improvement Program (AIP) is administered by the FAA and funded primarily through:
- The Aviation Trust Fund, fed by ticket taxes and fuel taxes (Correct answer)
- State property taxes on airport land
- Direct Congressional appropriations each fiscal year
- Airport-generated concession revenue shared with the federal government
Correct answer: The Aviation Trust Fund, fed by ticket taxes and fuel taxes
AIP grants are drawn from the Airport and Airway Trust Fund, which is financed by passenger ticket taxes, cargo waybill taxes, and aviation fuel excise taxes.
Question 93: Which federal agency primarily regulates airport stormwater discharge under the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)?
- EPA (Correct answer)
- OSHA
- TSA
- FAA
Correct answer: EPA
The EPA administers the NPDES program, which requires airports to obtain permits controlling stormwater runoff that may carry pollutants such as deicing chemicals into waterways.
Question 94: Airports that conduct aircraft painting operations must manage waste that may be classified as hazardous due to the presence of:
- Carbon fiber dust
- Jet fuel additives
- Lead-based paint and solvents containing VOCs (Correct answer)
- Hydraulic fluid residue
Correct answer: Lead-based paint and solvents containing VOCs
Lead-based coatings and volatile organic compound solvents in aircraft paint operations generate hazardous waste requiring proper handling and disposal.
Question 95: Which of the following is an example of an 'administrative control' used to mitigate a safety risk?
- Issuing a written procedure limiting vehicle speed on taxiways (Correct answer)
- Installing a physical barrier on the airfield
- Requiring personnel to wear high-visibility vests
- Replacing aging ground support equipment with newer models
Correct answer: Issuing a written procedure limiting vehicle speed on taxiways
Administrative controls are written rules, procedures, or policies that govern behavior — such as a taxiway speed limit procedure.
Question 96: How often must airport operators conduct a Criminal History Records Check (CHRC) on employees requiring unescorted access to secure areas?
- Every 2 years
- Annually
- Every 5 years
- At initial hire only (Correct answer)
Correct answer: At initial hire only
CHRC is required at initial employment, though airports may conduct additional checks at their discretion.
Question 97: What action should an airport communications operator take when they receive a garbled or incomplete distress message?
- Wait for the caller to retransmit before taking any action
- Log the call and notify a supervisor at the next shift change
- Broadcast a general announcement on all frequencies
- Immediately alert emergency services and attempt to re-establish contact (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Immediately alert emergency services and attempt to re-establish contact
Incomplete distress messages must trigger immediate emergency response activation while attempts to restore contact continue simultaneously.
Question 98: Which international standard provides the framework most commonly adopted by airports to systematically manage environmental responsibilities?
- ISO 9001
- ISO 14001 (Correct answer)
- ISO 50001
- ISO 45001
Correct answer: ISO 14001
ISO 14001 specifies requirements for an Environmental Management System (EMS), enabling airports to control their environmental impacts and continually improve performance.
Question 99: What is a common method to restrict unauthorized access to airfield areas?
- Open entrances
- Verbal confirmation
- Access control systems (Correct answer)
- Public signage
Correct answer: Access control systems
Access control systems are a fundamental security measure used to restrict unauthorized entry to sensitive airfield areas, such as runways, taxiways, and baggage handling zones. These systems, which include fences, gates, card readers, and biometric scanners, ensure that only authorized personnel with proper credentials can access critical operational spaces. This enhances security, prevents tampering, and protects aircraft and infrastructure from threats.
Question 100: What does the term 'residual cost' signify in an airport use agreement?
- Costs are split equally among tenants
- Airlines cover all airport costs not recovered from other sources (Correct answer)
- Only non-aeronautical revenues fund operations
- Airlines pay only variable costs
Correct answer: Airlines cover all airport costs not recovered from other sources
Under residual cost agreements, signatory airlines are responsible for the net costs after other revenues are applied.
ACE - Airport Certified Employee Exam
The ACE (Airport Certified Employee) exam, jointly offered by AAAE and ACI-NA, certifies airport professionals across key operational areas including security, safety, operations, environmental management, and communications.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds