HPE Aruba Networking Certified Associate - Campus Access (ACA) HPE6-A85 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which QoS mechanism enforces a traffic rate limit by dropping packets that exceed the defined rate?
- Traffic shaping
- Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED)
- Traffic policing (Correct answer)
- Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)
Correct answer: Traffic policing
Traffic policing drops or re-marks packets that exceed the configured rate limit, providing hard enforcement of the policy.
Question 2: What does Aruba AirWave VisualRF provide to network administrators?
- A floor plan-based view of AP placement and wireless coverage (Correct answer)
- Real-time firmware compliance status
- Switch port utilization heat maps
- VLAN configuration visualization
Correct answer: A floor plan-based view of AP placement and wireless coverage
VisualRF in Aruba AirWave provides a floor plan-based visualization of AP placement, wireless coverage, and RF environment.
Question 3: Which type of VLAN is dedicated to carrying voice traffic with priority tagging on Aruba switches?
- Data VLAN
- Native VLAN
- Management VLAN
- Voice VLAN (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Voice VLAN
A Voice VLAN is a dedicated VLAN configured on switch ports to carry VoIP traffic with appropriate QoS priority tagging.
Question 4: Which queuing mechanism gives absolute priority to delay-sensitive traffic, ensuring it is always dequeued first?
- Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ)
- First In First Out (FIFO)
- Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)
- Strict Priority Queuing (PQ) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Strict Priority Queuing (PQ)
Strict Priority Queuing always services the highest-priority queue first before any other queue, guaranteeing minimal delay for sensitive traffic like VoIP.
Question 5: What is the key difference between static routing and dynamic routing?
- Static routing requires a dedicated router; dynamic routing works on switches
- Static routes are manually configured; dynamic routes are learned automatically via routing protocols (Correct answer)
- Static routing only works with IPv6; dynamic routing works with IPv4
- Static routing uses encryption; dynamic routing does not
Correct answer: Static routes are manually configured; dynamic routes are learned automatically via routing protocols
Static routes are manually entered by an administrator and do not adapt to topology changes, while dynamic routing protocols automatically discover and update routes based on network changes.
Question 6: Which Aruba solution provides posture assessment to check endpoint compliance before granting network access?
- ClearPass OnGuard (Correct answer)
- Aruba Central
- NetEdit
- AirWave
Correct answer: ClearPass OnGuard
ClearPass OnGuard is the posture assessment agent that checks endpoint health (antivirus, patch level, firewall status) before allowing access.
Question 7: What does WRED stand for and what problem does it solve?
- Weighted Round-Robin External Delivery — balances load across WAN circuits
- Weighted Random Early Detection — prevents tail-drop congestion by proactively dropping packets before queues fill (Correct answer)
- Wireless Routing Efficiency Design — optimizes wireless routing paths
- Wide-Range Error Detection — identifies transmission errors on WAN links
Correct answer: Weighted Random Early Detection — prevents tail-drop congestion by proactively dropping packets before queues fill
WRED (Weighted Random Early Detection) randomly drops packets before queues are completely full, preventing TCP global synchronization and favoring lower-priority traffic for drops.
Question 8: What is the difference between a routing protocol and a routed protocol?
- A routing protocol carries user data; a routed protocol only manages router tables
- A routing protocol exchanges routing information between routers; a routed protocol is the protocol whose traffic is being routed (Correct answer)
- A routing protocol runs only on edge routers; a routed protocol runs on all devices
- A routing protocol uses UDP; a routed protocol uses TCP
Correct answer: A routing protocol exchanges routing information between routers; a routed protocol is the protocol whose traffic is being routed
A routing protocol like OSPF exchanges topology information between routers, while a routed protocol like IPv4 is the actual payload being forwarded.
Question 9: Which deployment model does Aruba Central support to allow management of both cloud-connected and on-premises infrastructure?
- Air-gapped offline management
- Hypervisor-only deployment
- Physical appliance management only
- Hybrid cloud management (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hybrid cloud management
Aruba Central supports a hybrid cloud management model, allowing organizations to manage cloud-connected devices alongside on-premises infrastructure from the same platform.
Question 10: What is route summarization (also called route aggregation)?
- Distributing routes from one protocol into another
- Assigning multiple IP addresses to a single router interface
- Combining multiple specific routes into a single larger prefix to reduce routing table size (Correct answer)
- Splitting a large subnet into smaller ones for better management
Correct answer: Combining multiple specific routes into a single larger prefix to reduce routing table size
Route summarization combines multiple contiguous specific routes into a single summary advertisement to reduce routing table size and LSA flooding.
Question 11: What is the most likely cause when a DHCP client cannot obtain an IP address?
- DHCP server unreachable, scope exhaustion, or missing DHCP helper-address on the router (Correct answer)
- Physical cable fault on the switch uplink
- Spanning tree port blocked on the access layer
- 802.1X authentication timeout
Correct answer: DHCP server unreachable, scope exhaustion, or missing DHCP helper-address on the router
DHCP failures are typically caused by the DHCP server being unreachable, the IP scope being exhausted, or a missing relay agent on the router.
Question 12: Which DSCP Assured Forwarding (AF) class is recommended for interactive video conferencing traffic?
- AF11 (DSCP 10)
- AF41 (DSCP 34) (Correct answer)
- CS1 (DSCP 8)
- AF21 (DSCP 18)
Correct answer: AF41 (DSCP 34)
AF41 (DSCP 34) is the recommended marking for interactive video traffic per RFC 4594, providing high-priority assured forwarding with low drop probability.
Question 13: In Aruba Central, what does the Audit Trail feature track?
- All configuration changes made by administrators with timestamps and user identities (Correct answer)
- DHCP lease assignments for tracked devices
- Client roaming events between access points
- Firmware version history for all managed devices
Correct answer: All configuration changes made by administrators with timestamps and user identities
The Audit Trail in Aruba Central logs all configuration changes including who made the change, what was changed, and when it occurred.
Question 14: What is the purpose of RADIUS accounting in an Aruba network security deployment?
- To encrypt user credentials during authentication
- To assign IP addresses via DHCP
- To provide session records (start/stop/interim) for audit, billing, and analytics (Correct answer)
- To replace the need for 802.1X
Correct answer: To provide session records (start/stop/interim) for audit, billing, and analytics
RADIUS accounting sends Start, Interim-Update, and Stop messages to the RADIUS server, recording session duration, bytes transferred, and user identity for audit purposes.
Question 15: What does BGP stand for and where is it primarily used?
- Basic Gateway Protocol; used within a single enterprise campus
- Backup Gateway Protocol; used for redundant default routes
- Bridged Gateway Protocol; used for Layer 2 extensions
- Border Gateway Protocol; used between autonomous systems on the internet (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Border Gateway Protocol; used between autonomous systems on the internet
BGP is the path-vector routing protocol used between autonomous systems and is the routing protocol of the internet.
Question 16: What is the function of the Aruba EdgeConnect 'Boost' WAN optimization feature?
- To compress wireless frames at the AP level
- To add redundant WAN links automatically when primary links fail
- To increase the physical speed of WAN interfaces
- To apply TCP acceleration and data reduction techniques to specific application traffic (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To apply TCP acceleration and data reduction techniques to specific application traffic
EdgeConnect Boost applies TCP acceleration, data deduplication, and compression to designated application flows, reducing WAN bandwidth usage and improving application response times.
Question 17: In the context of Aruba routing, what is a VLAN interface (SVI) used for?
- To route traffic between VLANs at Layer 3 on a multilayer switch (Correct answer)
- To manage DHCP scope assignments
- To configure trunk ports between switches
- To enable spanning tree on a VLAN
Correct answer: To route traffic between VLANs at Layer 3 on a multilayer switch
A VLAN interface (Switch Virtual Interface) provides a Layer 3 IP address for a VLAN, enabling inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch.
Question 18: Which Aruba Central feature provides AI-powered insights to identify and resolve network issues?
- AI Insights (Correct answer)
- RF Planning
- Network Health
- Client Match
Correct answer: AI Insights
AI Insights in Aruba Central leverages machine learning to analyze network data and proactively identify potential issues.
Question 19: What is the valid range of DSCP values that can be assigned to IP packets?
- 0–15
- 0–7
- 0–255
- 0–63 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0–63
DSCP uses a 6-bit field in the IP header's ToS byte, giving a range of 0 to 63.
Question 20: What does 'application-aware routing' mean in the context of Aruba SD-WAN?
- All applications are encrypted before leaving the branch
- SD-WAN automatically updates application software on branch servers
- The SD-WAN device inspects URLs to filter web content
- Traffic is steered over WAN links based on the specific application's requirements such as latency, jitter, or packet loss thresholds (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Traffic is steered over WAN links based on the specific application's requirements such as latency, jitter, or packet loss thresholds
Application-aware routing in Aruba SD-WAN identifies applications and routes their traffic over the WAN path that best meets their specific performance requirements, such as low-latency paths for VoIP.
Question 21: What type of alert in Aruba Central notifies administrators about threshold-based events?
- Event Notifications
- Health Checks
- Threshold Alerts (Correct answer)
- Audit Logs
Correct answer: Threshold Alerts
Threshold Alerts in Aruba Central trigger notifications when monitored metrics exceed or fall below defined values.
Question 22: In ClearPass, which component is responsible for enforcing the policy decision by communicating directly with the network device (e.g., controller or switch)?
- AirGroup
- Enforcement Profiles & Policies (Correct answer)
- Insight
- Policy Manager
Correct answer: Enforcement Profiles & Policies
Enforcement Profiles define what action to take (e.g., VLAN, role, ACL), and the Enforcement Policy maps those profiles to policy rule outcomes sent to the network device.
Question 23: On an Aruba CX switch, which command displays the VLAN database?
- show ip route
- show interfaces
- show spanning-tree
- show vlan (Correct answer)
Correct answer: show vlan
The show vlan command on Aruba CX switches displays all configured VLANs and their associated port memberships.
Question 24: What is the role of the Aruba Orchestrator in an SD-WAN deployment?
- To provide wireless spectrum analysis for branch APs
- To serve as the centralized SD-WAN management and policy controller for all EdgeConnect appliances (Correct answer)
- To perform deep packet inspection on all WAN traffic
- To act as the primary DHCP server for all branch offices
Correct answer: To serve as the centralized SD-WAN management and policy controller for all EdgeConnect appliances
Aruba Orchestrator is the centralized management platform for Aruba EdgeConnect SD-WAN, providing policy configuration, template management, visibility, and orchestration across all branch appliances.
Question 25: Which Aruba feature steers dual-band capable clients to the 5 GHz band instead of 2.4 GHz?
- ClientMatch
- ARM
- AirMatch
- Band Steering (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Band Steering
Band Steering encourages dual-band clients to connect to the less congested 5 GHz band by delaying probe responses on 2.4 GHz.
Question 26: In Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax), what is the maximum number of spatial streams supported?
- 6
- 4
- 12
- 8 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 8
Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) supports up to 8 spatial streams for MIMO transmission, doubling the theoretical throughput per radio.
Question 27: Which ARP security feature on Aruba switches prevents ARP spoofing attacks by validating ARP packets against the DHCP Snooping binding table?
- Gratuitous ARP Blocker
- ARP Guard
- ARP Proxy
- Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) validates ARP packets against the DHCP Snooping binding table, dropping ARP packets with invalid MAC-to-IP mappings to prevent ARP spoofing.
Question 28: What Aruba tool would you use to visualize the RF environment and identify coverage gaps?
- Aruba NetEdit topology view
- Aruba Central Audit Trail
- Aruba Central RF Health or Aruba AirWave VisualRF (Correct answer)
- ClearPass Access Tracker
Correct answer: Aruba Central RF Health or Aruba AirWave VisualRF
Aruba Central RF Health and AirWave VisualRF provide floor plan-based RF visualization to identify coverage gaps, interference, and channel planning issues.
Question 29: In Aruba's product portfolio, what does 'HPE Aruba Networking' refer to?
- Only the HPE wired switching products
- A separate company from Aruba Networks
- A cloud-only service offering
- The rebranded Aruba product line under HPE ownership (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The rebranded Aruba product line under HPE ownership
Following Hewlett Packard Enterprise's acquisition of Aruba Networks in 2015, the combined portfolio is marketed as 'HPE Aruba Networking,' encompassing both Aruba wireless and HPE switching products.
Question 30: Which Aruba feature enables seamless client roaming between APs without re-authentication delays?
- Client Match
- Band Steering
- AirSlice
- Fast Roaming (802.11r) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Fast Roaming (802.11r)
IEEE 802.11r (Fast BSS Transition) enables fast roaming by caching security credentials so clients roam between APs without full re-authentication.
Question 31: What is the primary purpose of Quality of Service (QoS) in a network?
- To prioritize certain types of traffic to ensure performance (Correct answer)
- To increase the total available bandwidth
- To encrypt traffic between endpoints
- To block unauthorized network access
Correct answer: To prioritize certain types of traffic to ensure performance
QoS prioritizes certain traffic types (such as voice and video) to guarantee the performance levels they require, rather than increasing raw bandwidth.
Question 32: What cloud infrastructure provider powers Aruba Central's backend?
- Amazon Web Services (AWS) (Correct answer)
- Microsoft Azure
- IBM Cloud
- Google Cloud Platform
Correct answer: Amazon Web Services (AWS)
Aruba Central runs on Amazon Web Services, leveraging its global infrastructure for reliability and geographic scalability.
Question 33: What is NAT (Network Address Translation) primarily used for in enterprise networks?
- To compress packets before sending them over the WAN
- To encrypt traffic between internal and external networks
- To assign VLAN tags to outbound traffic
- To translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses for Internet access (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses for Internet access
NAT translates private RFC 1918 IP addresses used internally to a public IP address for Internet communication, conserving public IPv4 address space.
Question 34: What is the first step in a systematic network troubleshooting methodology?
- Define the problem and gather information (Correct answer)
- Restart all network devices
- Replace suspected hardware components
- Update all device firmware
Correct answer: Define the problem and gather information
The first step in systematic troubleshooting is clearly defining the problem by gathering information from users and monitoring systems before taking any action.
Question 35: What is the Aruba GreenLake platform?
- A physical data center appliance for on-premises cloud computing
- An open-source network operating system for Aruba devices
- A cloud-delivered, consumption-based IT platform for managing Aruba networking infrastructure as a service (Correct answer)
- A wireless spectrum analysis tool for RF planning
Correct answer: A cloud-delivered, consumption-based IT platform for managing Aruba networking infrastructure as a service
Aruba GreenLake is a cloud-delivered, consumption-based service model that delivers networking infrastructure and management as a service with flexible, pay-as-you-grow pricing.
Question 36: What does the term 'channel bonding' mean in the context of 802.11n and later standards?
- Encrypting channel traffic with AES bonding
- Aggregating two adjacent 20 MHz channels into a 40 MHz or wider channel for higher throughput (Correct answer)
- Combining multiple SSIDs onto one channel
- Linking two APs together for redundancy
Correct answer: Aggregating two adjacent 20 MHz channels into a 40 MHz or wider channel for higher throughput
Channel bonding combines adjacent 20 MHz channels into 40, 80, or 160 MHz channels to increase data throughput.
Question 37: Which Aruba security feature uses tunneled node to forward all client traffic to a central security inspection point?
- Gateway Advanced Security (formerly Policy Enforcement Firewall)
- Role-based access control
- Dynamic Segmentation with tunnel mode (Correct answer)
- AirGroup
Correct answer: Dynamic Segmentation with tunnel mode
Dynamic Segmentation in tunnel mode forwards client traffic through a GRE tunnel to the Mobility Controller or SD-Branch gateway for centralized policy enforcement and deep packet inspection.
Question 38: Which Aruba Central dashboard widget shows the real-time health of the entire network?
- Topology Map
- Client Overview
- Network Summary (Correct answer)
- Device Inventory
Correct answer: Network Summary
The Network Summary widget in Aruba Central provides a real-time view of overall network health including device and client status.
Question 39: Which 802.11 QoS standard defines four access categories (Voice, Video, Best Effort, Background)?
- 802.11e / WMM (Correct answer)
- 802.11r
- 802.11v
- 802.11k
Correct answer: 802.11e / WMM
802.11e (implemented as WMM — Wi-Fi Multimedia) defines four access categories with different EDCA parameters to prioritize time-sensitive traffic.
Question 40: Which routing protocol uses the Dijkstra shortest path first (SPF) algorithm and is classified as a link-state protocol?
- BGP
- EIGRP
- RIP
- OSPF (Correct answer)
Correct answer: OSPF
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a link-state routing protocol that builds a complete topology map and uses Dijkstra's SPF algorithm to compute the best paths.
Question 41: In Aruba switching, what is VSX (Virtual Switching Extension) used for?
- To extend VLANs across WAN links
- To create an active-active switch pair that appears as a single logical switch (Correct answer)
- To virtualize access points as switch ports
- To provide out-of-band management access
Correct answer: To create an active-active switch pair that appears as a single logical switch
VSX on Aruba CX switches creates an active-active high-availability pair that appears as a single logical device to the rest of the network.
Question 42: What Aruba solution integrates with EdgeConnect SD-WAN to provide cloud-delivered security at branch offices without backhauling traffic to HQ?
- Aruba Instant
- Aruba AirWave
- Security Service Edge (SSE) cloud security integration (Correct answer)
- Aruba ClearPass
Correct answer: Security Service Edge (SSE) cloud security integration
Aruba SD-WAN integrates with cloud-based Security Service Edge (SSE) solutions, allowing branch Internet traffic to be inspected locally by cloud security rather than backhauled to a central data center.
Question 43: What is the purpose of a network baseline in performance monitoring?
- To configure default gateway settings
- To define the network topology diagram
- To establish normal operating metrics for comparison against anomalies (Correct answer)
- To set maximum bandwidth limits
Correct answer: To establish normal operating metrics for comparison against anomalies
A network baseline documents normal operating metrics so that deviations can be identified as potential issues or anomalies.
Question 44: What is the purpose of a loopback interface in Aruba router configuration?
- To bridge wired and wireless networks
- To provide a stable router ID and management endpoint that is always up (Correct answer)
- To connect to the internet service provider
- To create a test loop for cable continuity testing
Correct answer: To provide a stable router ID and management endpoint that is always up
A loopback interface provides a stable, always-up IP address used as a router ID for protocols like OSPF and as a reliable management endpoint.
Question 45: Which IPv6 address type is only routable within the local network segment and always begins with fe80?
- Global Unicast
- Link-Local (fe80::/10) (Correct answer)
- Loopback (::1)
- Multicast
Correct answer: Link-Local (fe80::/10)
IPv6 Link-Local addresses (fe80::/10 prefix) are automatically assigned to interfaces and are only routable within the local link, not forwarded by routers.
Question 46: What protocol does OSPF use at the IP layer for neighbor communication?
- IP Protocol 89 (Correct answer)
- IP Protocol 88
- UDP 520
- TCP 179
Correct answer: IP Protocol 89
OSPF uses IP Protocol number 89 for all communication including hello packets, LSAs, and database exchange between neighbors.
Question 47: Which wireless attack does Aruba's Wireless Intrusion Protection (WIP) detect by identifying a legitimate SSID broadcast from an unauthorized MAC address?
- Deauthentication flood
- Evil twin / honeypot AP (Correct answer)
- ARP poisoning
- DHCP starvation
Correct answer: Evil twin / honeypot AP
An evil twin attack uses a rogue AP broadcasting a legitimate SSID to lure clients; WIP detects the SSID/BSSID mismatch against the valid AP table.
Question 48: What distinguishes Aruba Instant On from standard Aruba Instant (IAP) products?
- Instant On supports more VLANs
- Instant On only supports 2.4 GHz radio
- Instant On requires a mobility controller
- Instant On is designed for small business while IAP targets enterprise deployments (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Instant On is designed for small business while IAP targets enterprise deployments
Aruba Instant On is a simplified networking solution targeted at small and medium businesses with easy setup, while Aruba Instant (IAP) is the enterprise-grade controller-less solution with advanced features.
Question 49: Which metrics does Aruba SD-WAN monitor to determine the health of a WAN path for real-time applications like VoIP?
- Packet loss, latency, and jitter (Correct answer)
- BGP route count
- Number of active VPN tunnels
- Maximum transmission unit (MTU) size
Correct answer: Packet loss, latency, and jitter
Aruba SD-WAN continuously measures packet loss, latency, and jitter on each WAN path and uses these metrics to steer real-time application traffic to the path with the best quality.
Question 50: What is the purpose of the traceroute command in network troubleshooting?
- To display the MAC address table
- To test physical cable continuity
- To verify VLAN trunk configuration
- To identify each hop along the path to a destination and measure per-hop latency (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To identify each hop along the path to a destination and measure per-hop latency
Traceroute sends packets with incrementing TTL values to identify each router hop between source and destination and measure per-hop round-trip times.
Question 51: What is DHCP Snooping, and what does it protect against?
- A protocol that speeds up DHCP lease renewal; protects against IP conflicts
- A monitoring tool that logs all DHCP traffic; protects against bandwidth overuse
- A security feature that validates DHCP messages; protects against rogue DHCP servers (Correct answer)
- A feature that encrypts DHCP traffic; protects against eavesdropping
Correct answer: A security feature that validates DHCP messages; protects against rogue DHCP servers
DHCP Snooping validates DHCP messages on untrusted ports and blocks unauthorized DHCP server responses, protecting clients from receiving incorrect IP configuration from rogue servers.
Question 52: What is the purpose of DHCP in an IP network?
- To resolve domain names to IP addresses
- To encrypt traffic between client and server
- To route packets between different IP networks
- To automatically assign IP addresses and network parameters to client devices (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To automatically assign IP addresses and network parameters to client devices
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses to client devices on a network.
Question 53: What metric does RIP use to determine the best path?
- Delay
- Bandwidth
- Hop count (Correct answer)
- Cost
Correct answer: Hop count
RIP uses hop count as its sole metric, with a maximum of 15 hops, and routes with 16 hops are considered unreachable.
Question 54: What advantage does cloud-hosted Aruba Central provide over traditional on-premises network management systems?
- On-premises systems support more devices than cloud platforms
- Cloud hosting eliminates the need for dedicated NMS servers, reduces maintenance overhead, and provides always-current software (Correct answer)
- Cloud-based management requires lower WAN bandwidth than on-premises systems
- Aruba Central does not require any licensing unlike on-premises NMS platforms
Correct answer: Cloud hosting eliminates the need for dedicated NMS servers, reduces maintenance overhead, and provides always-current software
Cloud-hosted Aruba Central eliminates the need to provision, maintain, and update dedicated NMS server hardware, as Aruba manages the infrastructure and continuously delivers new features.
Question 55: What is the purpose of ECMP (Equal-Cost Multi-Path) routing?
- To elect a primary and backup path for failover
- To summarize multiple subnets into a single route advertisement
- To prevent routing loops in distance-vector protocols
- To load-balance traffic across multiple paths with equal routing metrics (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To load-balance traffic across multiple paths with equal routing metrics
ECMP allows a router to load-balance traffic across multiple equal-cost paths simultaneously, increasing throughput and redundancy.
Question 56: On Aruba AOS-CX switches, where are QoS policies most commonly applied to enforce traffic prioritization?
- On ingress and egress interfaces using QoS profiles (Correct answer)
- Only on uplink ports connecting to routers
- Within the spanning tree configuration
- On the switch management VLAN interface only
Correct answer: On ingress and egress interfaces using QoS profiles
On Aruba AOS-CX, QoS schedules and policies are applied to physical or LAG interfaces at ingress (classification/remarking) and egress (scheduling/queuing).
Question 57: What is IPv6 and why was it developed?
- An encryption protocol developed to secure IPv4 networks
- A wireless standard developed to replace 802.11ac
- The successor to IPv4 developed to address IPv4 address exhaustion with a 128-bit address space (Correct answer)
- A routing protocol designed to replace OSPF in large networks
Correct answer: The successor to IPv4 developed to address IPv4 address exhaustion with a 128-bit address space
IPv6 was developed to replace IPv4 due to IPv4 address exhaustion, using 128-bit addresses to provide an essentially unlimited pool of unique IP addresses.
Question 58: In OSPF, what triggers a Shortest Path First (SPF) recalculation?
- A change in the link-state database due to a new or changed LSA (Correct answer)
- An administrator manually triggering the process
- A change in VLAN configuration
- A scheduled timer regardless of topology changes
Correct answer: A change in the link-state database due to a new or changed LSA
OSPF triggers an SPF recalculation whenever the link-state database changes due to a new, updated, or withdrawn LSA from any router.
Question 59: Which Aruba Mobility Controller configuration option prevents a wireless client from communicating directly with other clients on the same SSID?
- Load balancing
- Client isolation (intra-BSS traffic blocking) (Correct answer)
- Band steering
- ARM channel selection
Correct answer: Client isolation (intra-BSS traffic blocking)
Client isolation (intra-BSS blocking) prevents Layer 2 traffic between clients on the same SSID, commonly used for guest networks to protect clients from each other.
Question 60: In Aruba AOS-CX switches, what is the default number of QoS queues available per port?
- 16
- 8 (Correct answer)
- 4
- 2
Correct answer: 8
Aruba AOS-CX switches support 8 egress queues per port, allowing granular traffic prioritization aligned to 802.1p CoS or DSCP values.
HPE Aruba Networking Certified Associate - Campus Access (ACA) HPE6-A85
The ACA Campus Access certification validates foundational knowledge of HPE Aruba Networking wired and wireless campus access solutions, covering switching, WLAN, routing, security, and network management. It targets entry-level network professionals and field technicians working with Aruba products.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds