Mixed Deck — All ABP Topics Flashcards

Which of the following best describes a Stage IV periodontitis case?

Answer: CAL ≥5mm with complexity factors including masticatory dysfunction

Stage IV is the most severe stage and is distinguished by complexity factors that can lead to masticatory dysfunction, such as bite collapse or flaring.

The 'biological width' concept is relevant to regenerative therapy because violation of it can lead to:

Answer: Chronic osseous defect and bone loss around the restoration margin

Violation of biological width by restorative margins triggers a chronic inflammatory response that results in bone resorption as the periodontium attempts to re-establish the 2mm of supracrestal attachment.

Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) in the context of periodontal disease:

Answer: Can cause collateral tissue damage and perpetuate inflammation while targeting bacteria

While NETs trap and kill periodontal pathogens, the citrullinated histones, DNA scaffolds, and granule proteins they release also damage host tissue, activate the complement system, and sustain chronic inflammation.

A patient develops retrograde peri-implantitis 3 months after implant placement. The most likely etiology is:

Answer: Pre-existing periapical pathology on an adjacent tooth

Retrograde peri-implantitis most commonly results from contamination by periapical pathogens from a pre-existing lesion on an adjacent tooth migrating to the implant apex.

Which cells are primarily responsible for maintaining and remodeling the alveolar bone proper (bundle bone) adjacent to the PDL?

Answer: Osteoblasts and osteoclasts

Alveolar bone remodeling is carried out by coordinated activity of osteoblasts (bone formation) and osteoclasts (bone resorption), regulated by local and systemic signals.

The Summers osteotome sinus floor elevation technique relies on which principle to elevate the sinus membrane?

Answer: Controlled infracture of the sinus floor bone using blunt instruments

The Summers technique uses sequentially larger osteotomes to condense and infracture the sinus floor, elevating the membrane via the crestal approach.

The socket shield technique (partial root retention) in immediate implant placement is designed to preserve:

Answer: The buccal bundle bone by maintaining the root's PDL support

Retaining the buccal root fragment preserves its PDL blood supply to the bundle bone, preventing resorption of the thin buccal plate after extraction.

What is the mechanism of action of subantimicrobial-dose doxycycline (SDD) when used as a periodontal adjunct?

Answer: Matrix metalloproteinase inhibition

SDD at 20 mg twice daily inhibits host-derived matrix metalloproteinases, reducing collagen breakdown without exerting antibiotic effects.

The Albrektsson criteria for implant success include all of the following EXCEPT:

Answer: Implant mobility of less than 1 mm in any direction

The Albrektsson criteria require complete immobility; any detectable implant mobility (even <1 mm) indicates failure of osseointegration.

Under ABP reaccreditation requirements, board-certified periodontists must recertify every how many years?

Answer: 10 years

The ABP requires diplomates to recertify every 10 years to maintain board certification status.

In the context of non-surgical therapy for necrotizing periodontal disease (NUG/NUP), which treatment sequence is most appropriate during the acute phase?

Answer: Gentle supragingival debridement, patient instructions, and oral rinse; defer SRP until acute phase resolves

During the acute phase of NUG/NUP, gentle supragingival cleaning and antimicrobial rinses manage acute symptoms; aggressive SRP is deferred until inflammation resolves to avoid systemic spread.

What is the relationship between theory and practice in Regenerative Techniques?

Answer: Theory provides the foundation; practice applies it to real situations

Theory provides the conceptual foundation and principles, while practice involves applying those concepts to real-world situations. Both are essential for competence.

What is the primary purpose of professional certification in Disease Classification?

Answer: To validate competency and knowledge in the field

Certification validates that a professional has met established standards of knowledge and competency in Disease Classification.

According to the 2017 AAP/EFP classification, a patient with treated periodontitis who has residual pockets ≥6 mm with BOP is classified as:

Answer: Periodontitis in remission — unstable

Residual pockets ≥6 mm with bleeding indicate an unstable condition despite prior treatment, not stable remission.

Enamel matrix derivative (EMD/Emdogain) is derived from which source and primarily contains which protein?

Answer: Porcine fetal tooth buds; amelogenin

Emdogain is derived from porcine fetal enamel organ and consists predominantly of amelogenin proteins, which promote cementogenesis and periodontal regeneration.

What is the significance of 'complexity factors' in the 2017 periodontitis staging system?

Answer: They determine the minimum stage a patient can receive

Complexity factors such as furcation involvement, bone defect patterns, and tooth mobility establish the minimum stage a case can be classified at.

Which of the following is a key feature of the clinical examination for ABP certification?

Answer: The candidate must demonstrate practical skills in diagnosing and treating periodontal diseases.

The clinical examination for ABP certification is a crucial component that assesses a candidate's practical abilities. It requires the candidate to demonstrate their proficiency in accurately diagnosing periodontal conditions and formulating appropriate treatment plans, showcasing their real-world clinical competence.

Chemotherapeutic adjuncts such as locally delivered doxycycline (Atridox) during maintenance are MOST appropriately used in:

Answer: Isolated, non-responsive pockets ≥5 mm with active disease

Locally delivered antibiotics are best reserved for isolated non-responding pockets ≥5 mm showing signs of active disease during maintenance.

A patient with Stage III, Grade C periodontitis in SPT smokes 15 cigarettes per day. Compared to a non-smoker with identical clinical parameters, this patient is expected to have:

Answer: Artificially suppressed bleeding on probing despite similar disease activity

Smoking causes vasoconstriction that suppresses bleeding on probing, potentially masking active disease despite significant periodontal destruction.

In guided bone regeneration (GBR), the primary function of the membrane is to:

Answer: Exclude epithelial and connective tissue cells from the regenerating space

GBR membranes act as barriers to prevent fast-proliferating epithelial and connective tissue cells from occupying the space needed for slower bone-forming cells.