Retina and Vitreous Disorders Flashcards

In DRCR.net Protocol T, for center-involved diabetic macular edema with baseline visual acuity of 20/50 or worse, which agent produced the greatest 1-year visual gain?

Answer: Aflibercept

Protocol T showed aflibercept was superior at 1 year in eyes with worse baseline vision (20/50 or worse), with the difference narrowing by 2 years.

A 78-year-old presents with sudden painless monocular vision loss and a cherry-red spot. What is the most urgent next step in workup?

Answer: ESR, CRP, and platelet count to evaluate for giant cell arteritis

Arteritic CRAO must be excluded immediately in older patients because the fellow eye is at high risk without prompt corticosteroids.

Which feature most strongly predicts successful pharmacologic release of vitreomacular traction with ocriplasmin?

Answer: Absence of an epiretinal membrane

Ocriplasmin works best in phakic, younger patients with focal adhesion ≤1500 µm and no epiretinal membrane.

According to ETROP, which retinopathy of prematurity finding meets type 1 criteria for treatment?

Answer: Zone II, stage 2 with plus disease

Type 1 ROP includes zone I any stage with plus, zone I stage 3 without plus, and zone II stage 2 or 3 with plus.

Which exposure is most strongly associated with central serous chorioretinopathy?

Answer: Systemic or topical corticosteroids

Exogenous and endogenous corticosteroids are the best-established risk factor for CSC.

Which hemoglobin genotype is most associated with proliferative sickle cell retinopathy?

Answer: HbSC

HbSC disease carries the highest risk of proliferative retinopathy, despite milder systemic disease than HbSS.

What is the most common cause of acute retinal necrosis in immunocompetent adults?

Answer: Varicella-zoster virus

VZV is the most common cause of ARN, followed by HSV, and requires prompt antiviral therapy.