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Glaucoma Flashcards

7 cards from real ABO practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Glaucoma flashcards as text

  1. A 28-year-old myopic man develops elevated IOP and blurred vision after jogging. Exam shows a Krukenberg spindle and midperipheral radial iris transillumination defects. What is the underlying mechanism?

    Answer: Posterior iris bowing rubbing against lens zonules

    In pigment dispersion syndrome, concave (reverse pupillary block) iris configuration causes iris-zonule rubbing and pigment liberation, which exercise can provoke.

  2. Which gene is most strongly associated with pseudoexfoliation syndrome?

    Answer: LOXL1

    Variants in LOXL1, involved in elastin cross-linking, are the major genetic risk factor for pseudoexfoliation.

  3. A patient with neovascular glaucoma 3 months after an ischemic central retinal vein occlusion has an open angle with fine neovascularization and IOP of 34 mmHg. Besides IOP-lowering drops, what is the most important immediate treatment?

    Answer: Intravitreal anti-VEGF injection followed by panretinal photocoagulation

    Anti-VEGF rapidly regresses neovascularization and PRP addresses the ischemic drive before the angle closes synechially.

  4. Recurrent unilateral episodes of markedly elevated IOP with mild discomfort, few fine keratic precipitates, and minimal anterior chamber reaction are most consistent with which condition, often linked to CMV?

    Answer: Posner-Schlossman syndrome

    Posner-Schlossman (glaucomatocyclitic crisis) causes recurrent IOP spikes with minimal inflammation, and aqueous PCR often detects CMV.

  5. Years after blunt trauma, a patient has unilateral open-angle glaucoma. Which gonioscopic finding is most characteristic?

    Answer: Irregularly widened ciliary body band

    Angle recession appears as a widened, irregular ciliary body band from a tear between longitudinal and circular ciliary muscle fibers.

  6. An elderly patient with a hypermature cataract presents with a red painful eye, IOP of 50 mmHg, an open angle, and white flocculent material in the anterior chamber. What is the definitive treatment?

    Answer: Cataract extraction

    Phacolytic glaucoma results from leaked lens proteins and protein-laden macrophages blocking the meshwork, so lens removal is curative.

  7. A 40-year-old woman has unilateral corneal edema, a 'hammered silver' corneal endothelium, mild iris changes, and high-reaching PAS. Which ICE syndrome variant is most likely?

    Answer: Chandler syndrome

    Chandler syndrome is the ICE variant with predominant corneal endothelial abnormality and edema with minimal iris changes.