Core Knowledge and Fundamentals Flashcards
7 cards from real ABFM practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning โ missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Core Knowledge and Fundamentals flashcards as text
A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and established cardiovascular disease needs additional glycemic control. Which medication class provides the most cardiovascular mortality benefit?
Answer: SGLT-2 inhibitor or GLP-1 receptor agonist
SGLT-2 inhibitors and GLP-1 receptor agonists have demonstrated cardiovascular outcome benefits in trials (EMPA-REG, LEADER) and are preferred in patients with established CVD.
A patient presents with symmetric proximal muscle weakness and elevated CK. ANA is positive with anti-Jo-1 antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Polymyositis/antisynthetase syndrome
Anti-Jo-1 antibodies (anti-aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase) are associated with the antisynthetase syndrome, a subset of inflammatory myopathy including polymyositis.
Which of the following best describes the concept of number needed to treat (NNT)?
Answer: The number of patients who must be treated to prevent one additional adverse outcome
NNT = 1/absolute risk reduction; it represents how many patients must receive a treatment to prevent one additional bad outcome compared to control.
A 66-year-old woman with osteoporosis and GERD is started on alendronate. Which instruction is most important to prevent esophageal injury?
Answer: Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes
Bisphosphonates must be taken with 8 oz water and the patient must remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal erosion or ulceration.
A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and constipation. TSH is 12 mIU/L. What is the first-line treatment?
Answer: Levothyroxine (T4) replacement
Levothyroxine (synthetic T4) is the first-line treatment for hypothyroidism; the body converts T4 to the active T3 as needed.
Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs)?
Answer: History of migraine with aura
Migraine with aura is a WHO category 4 contraindication (unacceptable risk) for COCPs because estrogen significantly increases the risk of ischemic stroke.
A 30-year-old man presents with painless jaundice, dark urine, and a palpable non-tender gallbladder. Which condition does this constellation of findings suggest?
Answer: Pancreatic head cancer (Courvoisier's sign)
Painless jaundice with a palpably distended, non-tender gallbladder (Courvoisier's sign) suggests malignant biliary obstruction, most commonly pancreatic head cancer.