Practice Test Geeks(ABEM) American Board of Emergency Medicine Practice Test
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Cardiovascular & Respiratory Emergencies Flashcards

7 cards from real ABEM practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Cardiovascular & Respiratory Emergencies flashcards as text

  1. A 28-year-old asthmatic presents with severe wheezing, cannot speak in full sentences, HR 128, and SpO2 88%. After initial bronchodilators, what adjunct treatment is MOST appropriate?

    Answer: Systemic corticosteroids

    Systemic corticosteroids (IV methylprednisolone or oral prednisone) reduce airway inflammation and decrease length of stay in severe asthma exacerbations.

  2. Which type of aortic dissection (Stanford classification) requires immediate surgical intervention?

    Answer: Type A dissections involving the ascending aorta

    Stanford Type A dissections involve the ascending aorta and require emergent surgery due to risk of cardiac tamponade, coronary occlusion, and stroke.

  3. A patient is found in pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Which of the H's and T's should be considered FIRST given a history of massive hemorrhage?

    Answer: Hypovolemia

    Hypovolemia from hemorrhage is the most immediately reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid volume resuscitation.

  4. What is the mechanism by which PEEP (positive end-expiratory pressure) improves oxygenation in ARDS?

    Answer: Recruits collapsed alveoli and prevents derecruitment

    PEEP keeps alveoli open at end-expiration, recruits previously collapsed lung units, and improves ventilation-perfusion matching in ARDS.

  5. A 75-year-old female on digoxin presents with nausea, yellow-green visual halos, and bradycardia with a junctional rhythm on ECG. Digoxin toxicity is suspected. The MOST important electrolyte to check and correct is:

    Answer: Potassium

    Hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity by competing with digoxin for the same Na+/K+ ATPase binding site; correcting potassium is essential.

  6. A 40-year-old male with HIV presents with progressive dyspnea and dry cough. CXR shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. LDH is markedly elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

    Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)

    PCP is the most common opportunistic lung infection in HIV patients with low CD4 counts and classically presents with bilateral interstitial infiltrates and elevated LDH.

  7. A 50-year-old male develops acute onset dyspnea and hypoxia 3 days after an MI. Echocardiogram shows a new VSD. Which finding would you expect on physical exam?

    Answer: Loud systolic murmur at the left sternal border

    Post-MI ventricular septal defect causes a harsh holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border due to left-to-right shunting.