ABEM Pediatric & Obstetric Emergencies Flashcards

A pregnant patient at 32 weeks presents with severe headache, BP 168/110, and 3+ proteinuria. What is the diagnosis?

Answer: Severe preeclampsia

Severe preeclampsia is defined by BP ≥160/110 with proteinuria or other severe features after 20 weeks gestation.

A 25-year-old at 10 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and an empty uterus on ultrasound with no intrauterine pregnancy. β-hCG is 1,800 mIU/mL. What is the next step?

Answer: Repeat β-hCG in 48 hours

When β-hCG is below the discriminatory zone (~2,000 mIU/mL) and no IUP is seen, serial β-hCG in 48 hours is appropriate to differentiate ectopic from early IUP.

Which medication is first-line for controlling severe hypertension in eclampsia?

Answer: Labetalol IV

IV labetalol is a first-line agent for acute severe hypertension in pregnancy due to its safety profile and rapid onset.

A newborn delivered in the ED has no spontaneous respirations. After drying and stimulation, the heart rate is 80 bpm. What is the next step?

Answer: Positive pressure ventilation

Positive pressure ventilation is indicated when HR is below 100 bpm or respirations are absent after initial newborn stabilization steps.

A 16-year-old female presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, and cervical motion tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

The classic triad of lower abdominal pain, adnexal tenderness, and cervical motion tenderness in a sexually active female indicates PID.

A child presents with fever, refusal to bear weight, and a painful hip held in flexion and external rotation. Which finding best distinguishes septic arthritis from transient synovitis?

Answer: WBC > 12,000 and fever > 38.5°C

The Kocher criteria (fever >38.5°C, WBC >12,000, ESR >40, non-weight-bearing) help differentiate septic arthritis from transient synovitis.