ABA Advanced Diagnostics & Troubleshooting 2

Question 1

A patient's ABR shows a prolonged Wave I-III interpeak interval with a normal Wave III-V interval. Where is the lesion most likely located?

Accepted Answer

Retrocochlear (CN VIII or lower brainstem)

Answer

A prolonged I-III interpeak interval indicates a conduction delay between the cochlea/CN VIII and the lower brainstem, suggesting retrocochlear pathology.

Question 2

During DPOAE testing, emissions are absent only at 4000 Hz in a patient with a flat audiogram. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Localized outer hair cell dysfunction at 4 kHz

Answer

Absent DPOAEs at a single frequency with a normal audiogram suggests focal outer hair cell damage that has not yet shifted pure-tone thresholds.

Question 3

A patient's tympanogram shows an abnormally low static admittance (As) with a normal tympanometric peak pressure. Which condition is most consistent?

Accepted Answer

Otosclerosis

Answer

Otosclerosis typically produces a low or absent peak (Type As tympanogram) due to stiffening of the ossicular chain, particularly the stapes footplate.

Question 4

An audiologist observes elevated MEMR thresholds bilaterally with normal pure-tone thresholds and normal tympanograms. Which diagnosis is most consistent?

Accepted Answer

Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder

Answer

Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder (ANSD) is characterized by elevated or absent MEMRs with normal cochlear function (OAEs present) and normal middle ear function.

Question 5

When performing electrocochleography (ECochG), an elevated SP/AP ratio (>0.4) is most suggestive of:

Accepted Answer

Endolymphatic hydrops (Meniere's disease)

Answer

An elevated SP/AP ratio reflects endolymphatic hydrops, as the distended endolymph increases the summating potential relative to the action potential.

(ABA) American Board of Audiology Practice Test

(ABA) American Board of Audiology Practice Test

ABA Advanced Diagnostics & Troubleshooting 2