ABA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ABA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the primary purpose of the World Health Organization Surgical Safety Checklist 'Time Out' as it relates to anesthesia communication? → To verify patient identity, procedure, site, and team member roles before incision
2. The Trendelenburg position is CONTRAINDICATED or requires extreme caution in patients with: → Elevated intracranial pressure
3. Which element is NOT required to establish a medical malpractice claim against an anesthesiologist? → Proof of criminal intent
4. Which practice is the most effective single intervention to reduce wrong-site surgery? → Surgical site marking before the procedure
5. Which CMS rule requires hospitals to maintain a call roster ensuring anesthesia coverage is available at all times for emergencies? → CMS Conditions of Participation — Anesthesia Services (§482.52)
6. In the context of malignant hyperthermia (MH) crisis management, the recommended initial dantrolene dose is: → 2.5 mg/kg IV
7. Which parameter BEST guides the decision to discontinue vasopressors in a recovering septic shock patient? → Lactate clearance >10% and MAP >65 mmHg on decreasing doses
8. Which volatile anesthetic is CONTRAINDICATED in patients with a family history of malignant hyperthermia? → All halogenated volatile agents
9. When programming a smart infusion pump drug library for an opioid infusion, which safety parameter is most important to configure? → Dose error reduction software (DERS) hard and soft concentration limits
10. What is general anesthesia? → Unconsciousness induced for surgery
11. A patient with severe aortic stenosis (valve area 0.6 cm²) requires emergent hip fracture repair. Which hemodynamic goal is MOST important intraoperatively? → Maintain heart rate 80–100 bpm and avoid hypotension
12. Which property of a local anesthetic MOST determines its duration of action? → Protein binding percentage
13. What are opioids used for in pain management? → To alleviate moderate to severe pain
14. Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) prophylaxis with ondansetron works primarily by: → Blocking 5-HT₃ receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vagal afferents
15. A post-dural puncture headache (PDPH) is BEST characterized by which feature? → Frontal/occipital pain worsened upright and relieved supine
16. During a critical incident in the OR, team communication breaks down. Which intervention is most likely to restore effective communication? → Designate a team leader to direct tasks and use structured verbal updates
17. Per ASA guidelines, the minimum fasting interval for clear liquids before elective surgery in a healthy adult is: → 2 hours
18. Which quality improvement methodology uses 'Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control' (DMAIC) as its core framework? → Six Sigma
19. Which quality assurance method is most commonly applied in fundamentals & core concepts to verify that ABA professional standards are being met? → Structured audits, peer reviews, and performance metrics aligned with industry benchmarks
20. During controlled hypotension for spine surgery, which agent BEST preserves spinal cord perfusion pressure while reducing MAP? → Nicardipine, preserving spinal cord autoregulation better than sodium nitroprusside
21. Which electrolyte disturbance is MOST commonly associated with massive transfusion of packed red blood cells? → Hypocalcemia due to citrate chelation
22. In a quality improvement project targeting PONV reduction, which outcome measure is MOST directly relevant? → PACU rescue antiemetic administration rate
23. Checklists in the operating room, such as the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist, primarily reduce harm by: → Standardizing critical communication steps to reduce reliance on individual memory
24. Which closed-loop communication technique is MOST effective during a perioperative emergency to confirm that a verbal order has been received and acted upon? → Read-back by the recipient followed by confirmation from the sender
25. Volumetric capnography (V-slope analysis) can non-invasively estimate which parameter important to anesthetic management? → Dead space to tidal volume ratio (Vd/Vt)
26. In a patient with full stomach, rapid sequence induction (RSI) with cricoid pressure (Sellick maneuver) is intended to: → Occlude the esophagus to prevent passive regurgitation of gastric contents
27. The ASA recommends that a qualified anesthesia provider be physically present in the operating room throughout which type of anesthetic? → All general, regional, and monitored anesthesia care
28. A patient with latex allergy is scheduled for a procedure. Which of the following items MUST be specifically confirmed latex-free before entering the OR? → All of the above
29. Which class of drugs is used as the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose during procedural sedation? → Flumazenil (competitive benzodiazepine antagonist)
30. Which quality assurance method is most commonly applied in technology & digital tools to verify that ABA professional standards are being met? → Structured audits, peer reviews, and performance metrics aligned with industry benchmarks