AAPC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield AAPC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What does CPT code 43239 describe? → EGD with biopsy
2. Open carpal tunnel release (decompression of the median nerve at the wrist) is reported with which CPT code? → 64721
3. Insertion of a spinal neurostimulator pulse generator (implantable pulse generator) is reported with which CPT code? → 63685
4. Creation of a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt is reported with which CPT code? → 62223
5. If a surgeon performs only the postoperative management for a patient whose surgery was done by another physician, which modifier applies? → -55
6. For the permanent implantation of a spinal cord stimulator system following a successful trial, which combination of CPT codes is typically reported? → 63650 (or 63655) for electrode array AND 63685 for the pulse generator
7. A surgeon performs a posterior lumbar microdiscectomy (laminotomy with herniated disc excision) at a single level. The primary CPT code is: → 63030
8. Which CPT code range covers partial colectomy with anastomosis? → 44140–44160
9. When selecting the correct CPT code for craniotomy with clipping of a cerebral aneurysm, the primary determinant is: → The specific artery where the aneurysm is located
10. A physician in a freestanding imaging center must provide which level of supervision for a CT scan of the lumbar spine with contrast? → Direct supervision
11. CPT codes for nervous system procedures are found in which numeric range? → 61000–64999
12. An interlaminar epidural steroid injection at the lumbar level performed with fluoroscopic imaging guidance is reported using: → 62323 (lumbar/sacral, with imaging)
13. Posterior fossa craniectomy for decompression of a Chiari malformation is reported with which CPT code? → 61343
14. Which modifier is used when a surgeon makes an unplanned return to the OR for a complication related to the original procedure? → -78
15. Which modifier is used on an E/M service when the decision for a major surgery is made on the day before or the day of surgery? → -57
16. A patient undergoes an upper GI endoscopy (EGD) with ablation of a tumor. Which CPT code applies? → 43228
17. When a laparoscopic abdominal procedure is converted to an open approach, how should it be coded? → Code only the open procedure; no modifier needed
18. Which modifier should be appended to an E/M service provided during the postoperative global period for a condition unrelated to the surgery? → -24
19. What is the correct CPT code for hemorrhoid treatment by rubber band ligation? → 46221
20. What is the average LOS in LTCH? → Greater than 25 days
21. What is the global period for most major surgical procedures under Medicare? → 90 days
22. An anesthesiologist is medically directing one CRNA for an anesthesia case. Which HCPCS Level II modifier should be appended to the anesthesiologist's claim? → QY
23. Which service is NOT included in the central nervous system assessment? → Prescription for an opioid
24. Which of the following is a 'Qualifying Circumstance' add-on code used in anesthesia coding? → 99140
25. Transforaminal epidural injection of a steroid at the cervical level (single level) with imaging guidance is reported with: → 64479
26. The inpatient admission certification must be signed by whom? → The admitting or attending physician
27. A diaphragm resection and repair are done using a biologic mesh to reduce the formation of adhesions. Which procedure code should be reported? → 39561
28. Neuroplasty and transposition of the ulnar nerve at the elbow is reported with: → 64718
29. How should an incidental appendectomy performed during another abdominal procedure be coded? → It is not coded separately; it is included in the primary procedure
30. Which modifier is appended when a colonoscopy is attempted but only reaches the splenic flexure? → -52