AAP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield AAP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. The ENR SEC code is used for: → Automated enrollment of consumers in federal government benefit programs
2. The SHR (Shared Network Entry) SEC code is used for: → Point-of-sale debit transactions processed through a shared electronic network
3. The MTE SEC code is used for: → Machine transfer entries (ATM transactions) processed through the ACH network
4. What record type code is assigned to an ACH Entry Detail Record (e.g., for PPD or CCD entries)? → 6
5. What are the two primary types of transactions processed through the ACH Network? → Credit and debit transactions
6. What format does the 'Effective Entry Date' field use in the ACH Batch Header Record? → YYMMDD
7. For which of the following return codes is a Written Statement of Unauthorized Debit not required? → R-38
8. A consumer's written authorization for a recurring ACH debit must include which essential element? → The Receiver's signature or electronic equivalent authorizing the debit
9. OFAC compliance in ACH processing requires financial institutions to: → Screen transactions against the SDN list and block or reject prohibited transactions
10. A reversing entry must be transmitted within how many banking days after the original entry's settlement date? → 5 banking days
11. What dollar amount must a 'Prenote' ACH entry always contain? → $0.00
12. The IAT SEC code is required when: → A payment transaction involves a financial agency outside the United States
13. Which party initiates a reversing entry in the ACH network? → The Originator through its ODFI
14. NOC change code C01 indicates: → Incorrect DFI account number
15. BOC (Back Office Conversion) entries are created from: → Checks collected at the point of sale and converted during back-office processing
16. In an ACH Entry Detail Record, the 'Transaction Code' field (2 digits) specifies which of the following? → The account type (checking/savings) and debit or credit direction
17. What is the length of the 'Individual Name' field in an ACH PPD Entry Detail Record? → 22 characters
18. Return code R02 means: → The Receiver's account has been closed
19. What is the standard return timeframe for unauthorized ACH debit entries according to the Nacha Operating Rules? → 60 calendar days from the settlement date
20. When an ODFI uses a Third-Party Sender, the ODFI must ensure the TPS complies with: → NACHA Operating Rules
21. Under Regulation E, a consumer must report an unauthorized transaction within what timeframe to receive maximum protection? → 2 business days of learning of the loss or theft of an access device
22. How long must an Originator retain authorization records for ACH entries? → 2 years from the termination or revocation of the authorization
23. What is the Addenda Type Code used for an IAT Return? → 99
24. Before originating entries for a new Originator, an ODFI is required by NACHA rules to: → Conduct a risk assessment and due diligence review of the Originator
25. What is the primary obligation of an RDFI when it receives an ACH debit entry? → Post the entry to the Receiver's account unless a valid return reason exists
26. How frequently must ODFIs complete an ACH audit as required by NACHA? → Annually (at least once per calendar year)
27. NACHA's enforcement mechanisms for rules violations include: → Fines, suspension, or termination of ACH network participation
28. How is a Third-Party Sender (TPS) defined under NACHA Operating Rules? → A company that transmits ACH entries on behalf of Originators through an ODFI
29. Which record type code identifies the Company/Batch Header Record in an ACH file? → 5
30. In an ACH Trace Number, what do the first 8 digits represent? → The ODFI's routing transit number (without the check digit)