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Chronic Disease Management Flashcards

7 cards from real AANP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has inadequate response after 3 months of methotrexate monotherapy. She has no comorbidities. What is the most appropriate next step per current guidelines?

    Answer: Add a TNF inhibitor or other biologic DMARD

    ACR guidelines recommend adding a biologic or targeted synthetic DMARD (such as a TNF inhibitor) after 3 months of inadequate response to methotrexate monotherapy.

  2. A patient with stable angina is found to have an LDL of 98 mg/dL on high-intensity statin therapy. His 10-year ASCVD risk is 28%. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Add ezetimibe to further reduce LDL

    In very high-risk ASCVD patients with LDL ≥70 mg/dL despite maximally tolerated statin, adding ezetimibe is the recommended next step to further reduce cardiovascular risk.

  3. A 68-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4 is not on anticoagulation. He has no contraindications. What is the appropriate management?

    Answer: Initiate oral anticoagulation with a DOAC

    A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 in males indicates high stroke risk, and oral anticoagulation with a DOAC is recommended over aspirin, which is no longer guideline-supported for AF stroke prevention.

  4. A patient with a 40-pack-year smoking history, age 58, is seen for an annual visit. He currently smokes 1 PPD. Which lung cancer screening recommendation applies?

    Answer: Annual low-dose CT scan of the chest

    USPSTF recommends annual low-dose CT (LDCT) for adults aged 50–80 with a 20+ pack-year history who currently smoke or quit within the past 15 years.

  5. A 48-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes has an eGFR of 68 and urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR) of 180 mg/g. He is on metformin and linagliptin. Which medication should be added for renoprotection?

    Answer: An SGLT-2 inhibitor

    SGLT-2 inhibitors (e.g., empagliflozin, dapagliflozin) have demonstrated significant renoprotective benefits in diabetic kidney disease with albuminuria, reducing CKD progression and cardiovascular events.

  6. A patient with inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's disease) on long-term corticosteroids presents for a routine visit. Which monitoring intervention is most important?

    Answer: Bone density scan (DEXA)

    Long-term corticosteroid use significantly increases osteoporosis risk; DEXA scan is recommended for patients on chronic steroid therapy to assess bone density and guide preventive treatment.

  7. A patient with poorly controlled hypertension (BP 162/96) is on lisinopril 20 mg. He has no edema, normal renal function, and no diabetes. What is the best addition to his regimen?

    Answer: Chlorthalidone (thiazide-type diuretic)

    Thiazide-type diuretics such as chlorthalidone are the preferred second agent added to an ACE inhibitor for hypertension management per JNC and AHA/ACC guidelines.