SAT Test Prep

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1) Although there have been sporadic reports of sightings and even blurry photographs of the Abominable Snowman, most scientists remain skeptical; consequently, the existence of the Yeti has been ________ the realm of legend.

Correct! Wrong!

The clue that “scientists remain skeptical” indicates that they don’t believe in the existence of the Yeti. The signal word consequently sets up the second clause of the sentence as a result of the first clause. Because they don’t believe, scientists have relegated (moved to a position of less importance) the Yeti to legend.

2) Some health professionals believe that the excessive use of disinfectants is __________ to a person’s health because these products ___________ the microbes that may help fight infection.

Correct! Wrong!

The signal word because sets up the relationship in the sentence. Since “the microbes may help fight infection,” it would be detrimental (harmful) to destroy them.

3) School officials were surprised by the _________ of plagiarism in the school: a survey indicated that 70% of students had included undocumented material in their research papers.

Correct! Wrong!

The explanation after the colon indicates that many students engaged in plagiarism; thus, it is the pervasiveness (state of being widespread) of cheating that has surprised school officials.

4) The first-time author was surprised by the pejorative reviews of the critics who found her novel __________ and insipid.

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The clue word is pejorative (negative). The answer must be a negative word that would go along with the idea of being insipid (bland; uninteresting). Trite (dull; uninteresting) is the only negative word in the choices.

5) We would have thought the commentator’s remarks regarding the __________ in the recent campaign hyperbolic had we not seen proof of political trickery.

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The clue “proof of political trickery” defines the missing word, chicanery (trickery).

6) What is the most fitting title for the essay?

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All of the other choices are too specific, and some confuse the facts of the essay. The start of the Cold War was not 1945, Hiroshima is not referred to in the essay as the battle between good and evil, and Einstein played no role in the Truman Doctrine.

7) Which of the following is the most effective combination of sentences 1 and 2 (reprinted below)?

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Choices b and d both use the grammatically incorrect phrase led to by. In choice c, the facts are confused—the most interesting and troubling times in America were not several important historical events. Choice e is unnecessarily wordy.

8) The best paragraphing revision to this essay would be which of the following?

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Choice a would make the essay one large paragraph, while choice e would leave it as one large and one small paragraph. Beginning a paragraph with sentence 5 would break up the discussion of the development of the atomic bomb, and starting a new paragraph with sentence 9 would break up the discussion of Hiroshima. Sentence 6 is the most logical place to begin a new paragraph, because it introduces another one of the events that led to the Cold War.

9) The revision to sentence 13 (reprinted below) that would most improve the essay is:

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Choice e is the only one that eliminates the repetition of the words foreign and policy. It is the clearest and most concise choice.

10) In the context of the passage, which of the following is the most effective revision of sentence 10 (reprinted below)?

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The change in verb tense is necessary to maintain consistency. Choice a would include a superfluous comma, while choice c would make the sentence awkward. The phrase suggested in choice d would need commas around it, and choice e would retain the incorrect verb form.

11) Statistics indicate that avalanches can be [equally as dangerous to expert skiers as] to novices.

Correct! Wrong!

The sentence lacks parallelism. Changing the underlined portion to as . . . as will provide parallel structure.

12) [When one buys products online,] you should be sure you know the return policy of the company

Correct! Wrong!

The sentence contains a shift of pronoun from one to you. Since the you is not underlined, you must change the one to you.

13) Usually busy transporting needed supplies, [as the demand for fuel has declined the huge supertankers filled with oil are currently floating offshore.]

Correct! Wrong!

The sentence contains a modification error. It begins with a modifying phrase, Usually busy transporting needed supplies, which should be followed by what the phrase modifies: huge, supertankers. Only choices C and D begin correctly. Choice D is awkward and contains the vague phrase, filled with oil. Only Choice C is correct.

14) In 1992 the Korean group Seo Taiji and Boys became a wildly popular sensation, [playing innovative dance music that had a tremendous impact on Korean youth culture.]

Correct! Wrong!

The sentence is correct as written.

15) Green technology companies [are to help create innovative ways in which industry can meet the needs of society] without damaging or depleting natural resources.

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The sentence contains the awkward verb phrasing are to help. Choice D uses the correct verb phrase have been formed.

16) Choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Correct! Wrong!

There is no need for a comma to separate exhibit from the name of the exhibit. Think of it this way: a comma between "exhibit" and the name implies that there is only one "exhibit". e.g.) our planet, Earth. Of course there are many exhibits, so no comma.

17) Choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Correct! Wrong!

A) This word describes one thing coming after another, a meaning consistent with a sense of endlessness. B) describes when one member withdraws from a group. C) the exhibit itself is not actual producing the shoes (that would likely happen in a factory) D) implies going back to a previous and inferior state. The author is just expecting that he is going to see one shoe after another, not that he is going to see more inferior shoes the deeper he walks into the exhibit.

18) Choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Correct! Wrong!

The sentence begins with “the very first shoe…”. What is that very first shoe? To describe this, we need to use a nonessential clause, which is set off by commas. For example: The first thing I did this morning, go jogging outside, energized me. Notice how the phrase, “go jogging outside” is set off by commas. All it does is elaborate on what the first thing is. That’s why it is nonessential. Likewise, the phrase in the paragraph, “an original Chuck Taylor” just describes what the very first shoe the author saw at the museum. So we need to set off the entire phrase with commas. Make sure to put the second comma right before the verb (allayed) that links to the original subject (“very first shoe”).

19) Which of the following is the most appropriate version of the underlined sentence?

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B-The original sentence implies that “the design” was a professional basketball player. Instead, “a professional basketball player” needs to modify “Chuck Taylor”. B) does this perfectly. -C) is problematic because it has a double subject: “He” and “Chuck Taylor”. -In D), “Chuck Taylor” is correctly modified. However, the sentence shifts the focus of the main clause so that the important fact is that Chuck Taylor is a professional basketball player. The important fact, as B) correctly presents, is that Chuck Taylor influenced the design of his shoe

20) Choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Correct! Wrong!

The fourth sentence introduces Chuck Taylor. Notice how the second sentence talks about the author reading a placard about Chuck Taylor: "it was only when I read the placard...learned about Chuck Taylor the man." Therefore, it makes sense that the second sentence comes immediately before the fourth sentence. Another way to approach the question is to notice how the first sentence talks about how the author, upon seeing the Chuck Taylor's isn't impressed. The third sentence--and not as expected the second sentence--gives the reason. Therefore, the second sentence is clearly in the wrong place. The correct place for the sentence is explain in the paragraph above this.

21) To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 2 should be placed:

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The participle “testing” comes directly after the comma and therefore correctly describes the subject “he”. That is, Chuck Taylor was the one who was testing. Also, “testing” is parallel with “making”.

22) Choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Correct! Wrong!

The second paragraph is about Chuck Taylor and how he influenced the game of basketball. The third paragraph then shifts to something else: the sneaker as status symbol. Therefore, when the paragraph begins by saying “the main focus of the exhibition”, we want a word that shows that we are changing direction and talking about something different. C) however does a good job of this.

23) The writer wants to connect this phrase to the ideas expressed in the rest of the paragraph. Which choice best accomplishes this goal?

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The end of the paragraph mentions how people want to stick out from the rest of the sneaker crowd by wearing more expensive sneakers. This context suggests that “providing inspiration” is too vague. “Conferring status”, answer C) speaks to this theme. B) is tempting because change in the sneaker’s design is mentioned later in the paragraph. However, it is absurd to say that sneakers themselves documented change.

24) Choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Correct! Wrong!

This clause is an interrupter set off by em-dashes. Remember, if there is one em-dash introducing a phrase or clause that is an author injecting his/her own thoughts, there should always be a second em-dash. Example: The New SAT—like every standardized test before it—will be primarily multiple-choice

25) Choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Correct! Wrong!

Notice that the preceding sentence talks about the Air Jordan and says that it IS a masterpiece. Therefore, the author is referring to the shoe in the singular, not the pair of shoes. So “look” should be “looks” and the pronoun describing the shoe should be “it”, not “they”. That brings to either (C) or (D). (D) is longer, unnecessarily using an -ing form of the noun. That leaves us with answer (C).

26) Inside Margaret Jackson’s home were an art studio with a pottery kiln, high-tech stainless steel appliances, and [there was a swimming pool lined with Italian marble.]

Correct! Wrong!

Choice A violates the parallelism of the series of phrases. Choice B is the best answer. It expresses the third item in the list of home furnishings as a noun phrase parallel in form to a pottery kiln and high-tech stainless steel appliances. Choice C, by inverting the usual word order, is awkwardly expressed. Choices D and E violate the parallelism of the series of phrases.

27) Mr. Rich was not the first math teacher to entertain and inspire his students, but he [has been the first who turned] math class into a party.

Correct! Wrong!

Choices A, B, and E incorrectly shift the verb tense from the past tense to other tenses. Choice C is in the past tense, but it also contains the clumsy and pointless phrase having turned. Choice D is the best answer. It maintains a verb tense consistent with the rest of the sentence.

28) Our interscholastic athletic schedules were made [too recklessly, without sufficient planning behind it.]

Correct! Wrong!

Choice A uses the singular pronoun it to refer to the plural antecedent schedules. Choice B uses an adjective, reckless, instead of the adverb recklessly. Choice C is the best answer. Choice D, like B, uses an adjective where an adverb is needed and also includes the clumsily worded construction and there is not. Choice E is clumsily expressed and, like A, uses a singular instead of a plural pronoun.

29) Many senior citizens are reluctant to go [online, it results from not knowing much about computers and being a bit scared of it.]

Correct! Wrong!

Choice A contains a comma splice. It also uses the singular pronoun it to refer to the plural noun computers. Choice B includes an awkward construction, resulting from not knowing, and uses a singular pro- noun it to refer to the plural noun computers. Choice C is excessively wordy. Also, the construction for the reason being that is not expressed in standard English. Choice D uses the singular pronoun it to refer to the plural noun computers. Choice E is the best answer.

30) The program of extracurricular activities [were cut from the school budget in spite of them being regarded] as one of the most important aspects of high school.

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Choice A uses a plural verb, were, with a singular subject, program. Choice B uses the objective case pronoun, them, instead of the possessive pronoun, their. Choice C uses a plural pronoun, their, to refer to a singular noun, program. It also includes the awkward and meaningless construction, their regard as being. Choice D includes an awkward phrase, of regarding it. The sentence also fails to say who regards the program as an important aspect of high school Choice E is the best answer.

31) Identify the error.

Correct! Wrong!

You should always take a close look at underlined pronouns in identifying sentence error questions. “Registered" in this sentence is an adjective. and “who” is a pronoun that represents “voters.” Because it is the subject of the verb, “who, " rather than “whom," is correct. In addition, there are no other errors in this sentence. So, the answer is (E).

32) Identify the error.

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This sentence lacks parallel structure. “Debating" in the first part should be matched by “setting“ in the second part. The answer is therefore (C).

33) Identify the error.

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There's an error in diction here. “Affects" is a verb; “effects" is the noun form. "Side effects" is the desired phrase. Choice (B) is the answer.

34) Identify the error.

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The error here is difficult to detect. The phrase over the last decade indicates that the growth is still continuing. This is also indicated in the present. tense form of employs (D). Thus the first: verb should be has grown instead of had grown. Choice (B) is the answer.

35) Identify the error.

Correct! Wrong!

Here is another case of missing parallel structure. This is a common mistake in this section. Reading widely and making herself need to be matched by another gerund in part C, such as conducting sophisticated research. The answer is (C).

36) The town historian _________ the newspaper for covering the twentieth anniversary of an alleged UFO sighting while _________ to note the fiftieth anniversary of President Eisenhower’s visit.

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The question mentions two events, one that is significant (a visit from President Eisenhower) and one that is characterized as “alleged” and probably never happened. A town historian would likely be more interested in a presidential visit. Therefore, it would be logical for the historian to scold (“criticize”) the paper if it failed to mention President Eisenhower’s visit.

37) For all her __________ talent, Sylvia Plath could not shake the __________ that ultimately drove her to commit suicide.

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The best answer is (D) because famed author Sylvia Plath had talent thatwould be characterized favorably, and the fact that she committed suicide implies that she was melancholy.

38) Among the fiercest of the primates, the mandrill is notable for its __________ blue, purple, and scarlet facial markings.

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The best answer is (D) because the mandrill’s blue, purple, and scarlet facial markings are highly unusual and therefore distinctive

39) Due to his reputation for ___________ , Todd has no credibility among his peers.

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The best answer is (C) because Todd has no credibility and therefore has a reputation for “prevarication” (“concealing the truth”).

40) Only __________ drivers should attempt to __________ Black Mountain Road, which includes steep grades and dangerous hairpin curves.

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The best answer is (E) because “seasoned,” a synonym for “experienced,” fits the first blank, and “negotiate,” though it usually applies to people who are interacting, can also be used in connection with driving, as in “negotiate a curve.”

41) By how much is the greatest of five consecutive even integers greater than the smallest among them?

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Choose any 5 consecutive even integers—say—2, 4, 6, 8, 10. The largest in this group is 10, and the smallest is 2. Their difference is 10 – 2 = 8. The answer is (D).

42) If p and q are both positive integers such that p/9 + q/10 is also an integer, then which one of the following numbers could p equal?

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If p is not divisible by 9 and q is not divisible by 10, then p/9 results in a non-terminating decimal and q/10 results in a terminating decimal and the sum of the two would not result in an integer. [Because (a terminating decimal) + (a non-terminating decimal) is always a non-terminating decimal, and a non-terminating decimal is not an integer.] Since we are given that the expression is an integer, p must be divisible by 9. For example, if p = 1 and q = 10, the expression equals 1/9 + 10/10 = 1.11..., not an integer. If p = 9 and q = 5, the expression equals 9/9 + 5/10 = 1.5, not an integer. If p = 9 and q = 10, the expression equals 9/9 + 10/10 = 2, an integer. In short, p must be a positive integer divisible by 9. The answer is (C).

43) Which one of the following is the solution of the system of equations given?

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Choice (C): x = 1, y = 3: Here, x + y = 1 + 3 = 4 = 4, and x + 2y = 1 + 2(3) = 7. Correct.

44) If x is divisible by both 3 and 4, then the number x must be a multiple of which one of the following?

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We are given that x is divisible by 3 and 4. Hence, x must be a common multiple of 3 and 4. The least common multiple of 3 and 4 is 12. So, x is a multiple of 12. The answer is (B).

45) Which one of the following is divisible by both 2 and 3?

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A number divisible by 2 ends with one of the digits 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8. If a number is divisible by 3, then the sum of its digits is also divisible by 3. Hence, a number divisible by both 2 and 3 will follow both of the above rules. Choices (A) and (C) do not end with an even digit. Hence, eliminate them. The sum of digits of Choice (B) is 1 + 2 + 9 + 6 = 18, which is divisible by 3. Also, the last digit is 6. Hence, choice (B) is correct. Next, the sum of the digits of choices (D) and (E) are 1 + 4 + 0 + 6 (= 11) and 1 + 4 + 1 + 4 (= 10), respectively, and neither is divisible by 3. Hence, reject the two choices. Hence, the answer is (B).

46) If m and n are two different prime numbers, then the least common multiple of the two numbers must equal which one of the following?

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Prime numbers do not have common factors. Hence, the least common multiple of a set of such numbers equals the product of the numbers. For example, the LCM of 11 and 23 is 11 • 23. The answer is (A).

47) The number 3 divides a with a result of b and a remainder of 2. The number 3 divides b with a result of 2 and a remainder of 1. What is the value of a?

Correct! Wrong!

Since 3 divides b with a result of 2 and a remainder of 1, b = 2 ⋅ 3 + 1 = 7. Since number 3 divides a with a result of b (which we now know equals 7) and a remainder of 2, a = b ⋅ 3 + 2 = 7 ⋅ 3 + 2 = 23. The answer is (D).

48) 2ab5 is a four-digit number divisible by 25. If the number formed from the two digits ab is a multiple of 13, then ab equals?

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We have that the number 2ab5 is divisible by 25. Any number divisible by 25 ends with the last two digits 00, 25, 50, or 75. So, b5 should equal 25 or 75. Hence, b = 2 or 7. Since a is now free to take any digit from 0 through 9, ab can have multiple values. We also have that ab is divisible by 13. The multiples of 13 are 13, 26, 39, 52, 65, 78, and 91. Among these, the only number ending with 2 or 7 is 52. Hence, ab = 52. The answer is (C).

49) a, b, c, d, and e are five consecutive integers in increasing order of size. Which one of the following expressions is not odd?

Correct! Wrong!

ac + e: Suppose a is an odd number. Then both c and e must also be odd. Now, ac is product of two odd numbers and therefore must be odd. Summing this with another odd number e yields an even number. For example, if a = 1, then c must equal 3, and e must equal 5 and ac + e must equal 1 ⋅ 3 + 5 = 8, an even number. Now, suppose a is an even number. Then both c and e must also be even. Hence, ac + e =(product of two even numbers) + (an even number)=(even number) + (even number)=an even number For example, if a = 2, then c must equal 4, and e must equal 6 and the expression ac + e equals 14, an even number. Hence, in any case, ac + e is even. Correct. The answer is (E).

50) The number 3072 is divisible by both 6 and 8. Which one of the following is the first integer larger than 3072 that is also divisible by both 6 and 8?

Correct! Wrong!

Any number divisible by both 6 and 8 must be a multiple of the least common multiple of the two numbers, which is 24. Hence, any such number can be represented as 24n. If 3072 is one such number and is represented as 24n, then the next such number should be 24(n + 1) = 24n + 24 = 3072 + 24 = 3096. The answer is (E).

51) ODD INTEGER x ODD INTEGER equals?

Correct! Wrong!

ODD x ODD = ODD 3x3=9; 5x5=25

52) Solve the given equation:

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(x-3)(y-2) = xy-2x-3y+6

53)

Correct! Wrong!

Add 5 zeroes.

54) 15 percent of 200 equals?

Correct! Wrong!

15/100 x 200 = 30

55) Solve the given equation:

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(A) x-y=10 Add y: x—y+y=10+y x=10+y Subtract 10: x—10=10—10+y x-10 = y

56) What is the value of a+b+c+d+e+f+ g+h in the diagram above?

Correct! Wrong!

The sum of the angles in the diagram is 360 degrees , the number of degrees around the circumference of a circle.

57) In the diagram above, y equals?

Correct! Wrong!

The diameter cuts a 180° arc on the circle, so an inscribed angle y= 1/2 arc= 1/2 (180°) = 90° Here is a good thing to remember: Any inscribed angle whose triangle base is diameter is 90°.

58) The area of the figure is

Correct! Wrong!

Area of parallelogram = base x height = (10) (4) = 40

59) How many of the variables a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h are positive?

Correct! Wrong!

Horizontal right = + Horizontal left = - Vertical up = + Vertical down = - (D) a, b, c, 11 positive (4 letters)

60) What is the average speed in mph of a car traveling 40 miles for 4 hours?

Correct! Wrong!

Average speed = 40 miles/ 4 hours = 10 miles per hour

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