FREE PANCE Evaluation Test Question and Answers
A 35-year-old woman has had a rash on her legs for the previous three weeks. No known infectious contacts exist. Her bladder infection was treated with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole a month ago. A generalized rash is visible on the shins, left medial ankle, and right medial calf during physical examination. Tender, diffuse, and returning to the same spots, the rash is. A couple of the lesions show bruise-like characteristics. Which of the subsequent diagnoses is most likely?
Explanation:
Erythema nodosum is the name for the rash that seems to be bruised and affects the lower extremities below the knees. It may be caused by an antibiotic. In this clinical situation, each of these signs is present.
What is an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography's (ERCP) most common complication?
Explanation:
The most frequent ERCP consequence is pancreatitis. X-rays are used during the endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) operation to visualize the bile and pancreatic ducts. A gallstone blockage is a common reason for the surgery. To allow the flexible tube to enter the lower structures and introduce dye, the air is introduced through the mouth as the scope is inserted. Of those who receive an ERCP, 3% to 5% develop mild pancreatitis.
How does donepezil function when used to treat Alzheimer's disease?
Explanation:
An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is a donepezil. Donepezil boosts cholinergic transmission by blocking the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer's patients. It can enhance behavior, cognition, and functioning with daily activities. Memantine antagonizes glutamate, galantamine modulates cholinesterase and nicotinic receptor stimulation, and rivastigmine inhibits acetyl/butyrylcholinesterase.
A 45-year-old guy is being checked because he feels weak and weary and has experienced indications of sexual dysfunction. The reading is 100/60 mmHg for him. Physical examination reveals thinning pubic, axillary, and facial hair. Laboratory tests reveal lower levels of testosterone, thyroxine, and the luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormones; the thyroid-stimulating hormone level is within acceptable ranges. Which of the subsequent diagnoses is most likely?
Explanation:
Based on the typical signs of gonadotropin insufficiency, weakness, exhaustion, and sexual dysfunction, hypopituitarism is suspected. Hypogonadism is indicated by the lower levels of luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormones. Along with the lower testosterone levels, these laboratory results point to hypopituitarism.
A 47-year-old man has been pushing his lawn mower for the past three weeks while experiencing chest pain. He states he has never been treated for similar symptoms and has no problems presently. He smoked one pack each day for twenty years until giving it up seven years ago. Physical examination results are typical. Electrocardiograms don't reveal any anomalies. Which of the following first diagnostic tests is most appropriate?
Explanation:
The exercise stress test, which is noninvasive, affordable, practical, and sensitive in this type of patient, is the most appropriate initial step in the workup of a patient with recent chest pain.
A previously healthy 15-month-old kid develops anxiety, starts sobbing uncontrollably, and drools a lot. He had been calmly playing with his toys just moments ago. Pulse rate is 84/min, temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), and respirations are 18/min. The posterior pharynx is faintly injected but otherwise clear upon physical examination. Auscultation and percussion reveal no obstruction in the lungs. Chest X-ray study results are normal. He becomes quieter after an hour, but he still drools a lot. Which of the following is the ideal course of action?
Explanation:
The proper action to validate a diagnosis and administer therapeutic care is esophagogastroduodenoscopy.
On his fingertips, a 26-year-old male has 3 to 4 cm depigmented irregular patches that have been there for the past two months and appear to be becoming bigger. What is probably taking place with this patient?
Explanation:
Most likely, the patient has vitiligo. It may be an autoimmune disorder, while the real etiology is unknown. There is a genetic component. Progressive skin depigmentation is brought on by the loss of skin melanocytes. On the face, digits, and flexor surfaces, it frequently manifests itself.
