FREE NPTE-TE Exam Question and Answers

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In order to treat Karen's stress urine incontinence, she is undergoing physical therapy, and one of the objectives of her therapist is to teach her how to contract her pelvic floor musculature. Which of the following uses of biofeedback for pelvic floor retraining is well-established?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Patients who are undergoing pelvic floor retraining to enhance the quality of their contractions can benefit from the use of rehabilitation ultrasound imaging. A therapist's verbal and tactile signals are not used in the instrument-based learning process known as biofeedback. Patients are taught to engage the lumbar stabilizers, not the pelvic floor, using pressure biofeedback under the lumbar spine. Electrodermography, a type of biofeedback that analyzes skin electrical conductivity, is unrelated to pelvic floor retraining.

Trina went to physical therapy complaining of right low back pain that had been bothering her for the previous two weeks, which had spread to her posterior right leg and down to her knee. Her therapist saw a diminished patellar reflex on the side that was injured. When she lays down to attempt to fall asleep at night and when she bends forward, her agony is at its worst. Which of the following fits the facts above as a reasonable diagnostic theory?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
The nature of the radiating symptoms, a decreased patellar reflex in the affected leg (as a result of the compression of L4), and worsening symptoms with forward bending all point to the presence of lumbar radiculopathy in this case. In this situation, there is insufficient evidence to suspect cancer. Extension, not flexion, typically makes lumbar spinal stenosis worse. Vascular claudication is frequently related to degree of activity rather than the location of the spine, and it is not connected to weakened deep tendon reflexes.

When executing a barbell overhead press at the gym, Marie felt thoracic pain, so she made an appointment for a physical therapy evaluation. The therapist for Marie decides to start therapy with a midthoracic grade 5 manipulation after thoroughly examining Marie and clearing out any potential warning signs. Which of the following precludes the use of a grade 5 thoracic manipulation?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Due to the possibility of bone compromise caused by rheumatoid arthritis, the condition is a contraindication to performing thoracic thrust joint manipulation. Thoracic thrust manipulation may be indicated by thoracic pain during segmental mobility testing and during a maximal inhalation. A grade 5 manipulation can still be performed even if there is too much adipose tissue in the trunk; this is not a contraindication.

Elizabeth visits physical therapy to get her vertigo assessed and addressed. She has experienced sporadic, severe episodes of nausea, imbalance issues, and dizziness. To assist her control her symptoms, her primary care physician gave her a medicine to use whenever she has dizziness. Which of the following drugs is frequently used for dizziness?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
An antihistamine called meclizine is frequently administered to relieve dizzy symptoms. Antiemetic medication Zofran works to stop nausea and vomiting. A diuretic used to treat fluid retention is furosemide. For diabetics, metformin aids in blood glucose control.

Daniel is exercising his lower extremities D2 flexion and extension patterns as advised by his physical therapist to enhance his ability to kick a soccer ball with better motor control. Which hip motion grouping contributes to the lower extremity D2 flexion pattern?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Hip flexion, abduction, and internal rotation are necessary to complete the lower extremity D2 flexion pattern. Hip extension, adduction, and external rotation make up the lower extremity D2 extension pattern.

When Julia walks into a patient room at an outpatient physical therapy facility, she discovers an unconscious patient who has collapsed on the floor. She calls a staff member right away and instructs them to dial 911 and get the automated external defibrillator (AED). Julia examines the patient, who has a pulse but is not breathing normally. She turns the patient over on their back. What is the following best action in the chain of survival decision-making?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
According to the 2020 American Heart Association (AHA) recommendations, Julia should start giving herself rescue breaths, one every six seconds. Due to the presence of a pulse, the patient does not require cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) right away; however, the AHA advises checking the pulse every two minutes in this situation and starting CPR if the pulse ceases. Before the emergency personnel arrive, she should start performing rescue breaths. She shouldn't use the AED unless she starts performing CPR as a result of an absent pulse.

Andrew is conducting an examination on a patient undergoing rehabilitation following a catastrophic brain injury. Cranial nerve VI is dysfunctional, according to Andrew's evaluation. Which of the following complaints would you anticipate witnessing in this patient's situation?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
The lateral rectus muscles around the eyes are controlled by cranial nerve VI (the abducens nerve), which limits or prevents lateral eye movement if this nerve is damaged. Cranial nerve IX is connected to difficulty swallowing (the glossopharyngeal nerve). The motor innervation of the masticatory muscles is related with cranial nerve V (the trigeminal nerve); injury to this nerve makes chewing and biting difficult or impossible. cranial nerve I is linked to difficulties in scent perception (the olfactory nerve).

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