Free Doctor of Pharmacy General Questions and Answers — Questions and Answers
Question 1: For CIII medications, how many refills are permitted?
- 0
- 1
- 3
- 5 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 5
According to federal regulations in the United States, Schedule III (CIII) controlled substances are permitted to have up to five refills. These refills must be dispensed within six months from the date the prescription was issued, after which a new prescription is required.
Question 2: What characteristics do drugs have that are peculiar?
- It is a planned response to medication.
- It is a unique response to medication.
- It is an unexpected response to medication. (Correct answer)
- It is an expected response to medication.
Correct answer: It is an unexpected response to medication.
An idiosyncratic drug reaction refers to an unpredictable, uncharacteristic, or unexpected response to a medication that is not dose-related and does not occur in most patients. These reactions are often attributed to genetic predispositions or individual metabolic differences rather than the drug's known pharmacological properties.
Question 3: A 67-year-old woman arrives to your clinic and complains of being tired, having diarrhea, migraines, and losing her appetite. You examine her and discover that she is having some cognitive issues. MCV: 109fL; Hgb: 9g/dL; MMA and homocystine are also increased according to the test results. Shilling test is successful. What is the best course of action to take next for this patient's care?
- Obtain a Coomb’s test
- Iron supplementation for 4-6 months
- Lifelong folic acid supplementation
- Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation
supplementing with vitamin B12 continuously. Fatigue, constipation, and headaches are the most common symptoms of vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) insufficiency in patients, but it can also lead to cognitive abnormalities (difficulty concentrating, even mild dementia). Because pernicious anemia is a macrocytic anemia, laboratory results show a higher mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and a lower hemoglobin level.
Question 4: Your patient, a 25-year-old G1P0 girl who is 26 weeks pregnant, is seen because the results of her glucose tolerance test were abnormal. A venous plasma glucose level of 156 mg/dL was seen one hour after she received 50g of oral glucose one week earlier. Which of the following is the best course of management to take next?
- Administer an oral, 3-hour 100 g glucose dose (Correct answer)
- Begin insulin treatment
- Repeat the 50g oral glucose challenge
- Advise the patient to follow an American Diabetic Association diet plan
Correct answer: Administer an oral, 3-hour 100 g glucose dose
The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is made through a 1-hour 50g oral glucose challenge given between 24- and 28-weeks of pregnancy. A 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test is required to validate a suggestive venous plasma glucose blood level of greater than 140 mg/dL. A diagnosis requires at least two of the following following the administration of the 100g glucose challenge: (1) fasting glucose > 95 mg/dL, (2) one hour glucose >180 mg/dL, (3) two hour glucose >155 mg/dL, and (4) three hour glucose > 140 mg/dL.
Question 5: A 23-year-old woman arrives at your clinic complaining of sporadic throbbing headaches that often linger for several hours and are aggravated by light. She recommends allowing mild episodes of nausea but not vomiting. She had no major past medical history, and a physical examination revealed nothing. Which of the following therapies is regarded as an abortive therapy for the underlying disease of this patient?
- Propranolol
- Sumatriptan (Correct answer)
- Gabapentin
- Amitriptyline
Correct answer: Sumatriptan
Females are more likely than males to experience migraine headaches, and sufferers often first experience them in their early 20s. Traditional migraine symptoms include pounding headaches that persist for two to four hours. Red wine, fasting, stress, and menstruation are some triggers. The goal of primary prevention is to identify and keep away from triggers. If symptoms continue, you can utilize over-the-counter NSAIDS. In the event that this is unsuccessful, PRN abortive therapy, which includes triptans (such as sumatriptan) and metoclopramide, is advised.
Question 6: An 11-year-old boy and his mother come to your clinic complaining of recurrent diarrhea that has lasted for five days and has occasionally included blood streaks. Although stool cultures are still being performed, early stool samples show fecal WBC and RBC. What would be the best course of action if the patient is stable enough for outpatient management and Shigella is the underlying pathogen?
- Oral TMP-SMX (Correct answer)
- Oral Metronidazole
- Oral Vancomycin
- An oral quinolone
Correct answer: Oral TMP-SMX
Shigella frequently affects young children and patients in institutions and can cause bloody diarrhea. The disease spreads through fecal-oral transfer and is extremely infectious. The infection can induce severe dehydration and, in young children, even febrile convulsions. The best course of treatment for individuals with clinical stability who can be treated with outpatient therapy is PO TMP-SMX to reduce the danger of person-to-person transmission.
Question 7: For the treatment of severe acne vulgaris, an 18-year-old female patient is referred to a dermatologist. Tetracycline is something the dermatologist wants to start her on. Which examination should the patient have before beginning treatment?
- Chest x-ray
- Pregnancy test (Correct answer)
- Liver function tests
- Complete blood count
Correct answer: Pregnancy test
Test for pregnancy. Tetracyclines work well for treating severe acne outbreaks. However, they are teratogenic. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm that female patients are not pregnant before beginning this medicine. To further reduce this risk, patients are frequently started on birth control at the same time.
For CIII medications, how many refills are permitted?