Free Cisco ENCOR 350-401 MCQ Question and Answers — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What are the primary advantages of hosting an application on the cloud?

Faster deployment time
Ease of management
Lower cost
Scalability (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Scalability

Scalability is the key advantage of installing an application in the cloud. On-premises installations need more hardware to scale up while cloud deployments can swiftly scale up or down to suit the demands of an application.

Question 2: Wireless LAN (WLAN) communication is done using a technique called orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM). Which three WLAN protocols among the following support OFDM?

802.11g
802.11a
802.11n
all of the above (Correct answer)

Correct answer: all of the above

Both 802.11b and 802.11g feature Direct-Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS). 802.11a, 802.11g, and 802.11n all enable orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM). Keep in mind that 802.11g can support DSSS or OFDM. Using a collection of symbols referred to as "chips," DSSS modulates data over a wide frequency range. Because a chip lasts less time than a bit, chips are transmitted more quickly than actual data. These chips additionally encrypt what seems to be random data in addition to the data that will be transferred. In spite of the fact that both parties to a DSSS communication are aware of which chips represent valid data and which do not if a third party were to intercept a DSSS transmission, it would be challenging for them to eavesdrop on the information because they would not be able to quickly identify which chips contained valid bits. OFDM employs a relatively moderate modulation rate for its symbols compared to DSSS's high modulation rate. OFDM is able to sustain high data rates thanks to its slower modulation rate and the simultaneous delivery of data over 52 data streams.

Question 3: What is the proper mapping between IP Prec 4's Flash Override and DSCP Codepoint?

AF41, AF42, AF43 (Correct answer)
AF22, AF23, AF43
AF42, AF43, EF
AF32, AF33, AF41

Correct answer: AF41, AF42, AF43

The only response that exclusively maps to Flash Override is AF41, AF42, and AF43.

Question 4: Which levels of logging are turned on by default?

0 - 7 (Correct answer)
0 - 5
1 - 5
1 - 7

Correct answer: 0 - 7

Debugs are only logged when they are activated with a debug command, however, the console, vty lines, and buffer will log all messages from all severity (logging) levels by default.

Question 5: The orchestrator is known as __________________ in Cisco's Enterprise NFV.

Cisco Enterprise Service Automation (ESA)
APIC-EM
APIC Controller
Cisco DNA Center (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cisco DNA Center

The VNF administration and NFV orchestration capabilities are provided by Cisco DNA Center. The deployment of virtualized network services made up of numerous VNFs can be easily automated. No longer included in the Enterprise NFV solution are APIC-EM and ESA.

Question 6: Which authentication technique can be utilized as a backup in the event that the AAA servers go down?

LDAP
Local database (Correct answer)
RADIUS
TACACS+

Correct answer: Local database

Cisco advises that a centralized AAA server should normally be in charge of managing passwords. However, some sensitive data is typically stored locally by Cisco IOS Software and other infrastructure devices. In the event that the AAA servers go down, some local passwords and secret data, such as special-use usernames, secret keys, and other password data, may be needed. For security, such local passwords ought to be encrypted. An example of a AAA server is TACACS+. In the unlikely event that the AAA servers go down, TACACS+ is not employed as a backup support system. An example of a AAA server is RADIUS. RADIUS is not used as backup support in the event that the AAA servers go down. An example of a AAA server is LDAP. LDAP is not used as backup support in the event that the AAA servers go down.

Question 7: What is the maximum number of WLCs that can be included in a single group when configuring a wireless mobility group?

6
12
16
24 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 24

WLCs can be grouped together to enable traveling across several controllers when inter controller roaming is configured. These teams are known as mobility teams. A mobility group may have up to 24 WLCs in it.

Question 8: What element determines whether a wired client has access to the network when it connects to an edge switch in a Cisco SD-Access fabric?

edge node
RADIUS server
Identity Services Engine (Correct answer)
control-plane node

Correct answer: Identity Services Engine

In a Cisco SD-Access (Software-Defined Access) fabric, the element that determines whether a wired client has access to the network when it connects to an edge switch is the "Identity Services Engine" (ISE). The Identity Services Engine is a powerful network access control and policy management platform that plays a crucial role in ensuring secure and controlled access to the network.

Question 9: What advantage does an on-premises deployment lack that a cloud infrastructure deployment offers?

supported systems
virtualization
efficient scalability (Correct answer)
storage capacity

Correct answer: efficient scalability

One advantage that a cloud infrastructure deployment offers, which an on-premises deployment lacks, is "efficient scalability."

Question 10: What function does a Cisco SD-WAN deployment's vSmart controller have?

gather telemetry data from WAN Edge routers
handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the Cisco SD-WAN fabric
onboard WAN Edge nodes into the Cisco SD-WAN fabric
distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the Cisco SD-WAN fabric (Correct answer)

Correct answer: distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the Cisco SD-WAN fabric

The function of a Cisco SD-WAN deployment's vSmart controller is to "distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the Cisco SD-WAN fabric." The vSmart controller is a key component in the SD-WAN architecture and plays a central role in managing the control plane of the SD-WAN fabric. It is responsible for distributing and enforcing policies that dictate how data traffic should be forwarded across the SD-WAN network.

Question 11: Where is radio resource management carried out in a wireless Cisco SD-Access solution?

control plane node (Correct answer)
wireless controller
Cisco CMX
DNA Center

Correct answer: control plane node

In a wireless Cisco SD-Access solution, radio resource management is carried out by the "control plane node." The control plane node is a key component in the SD-Access fabric that is responsible for managing and coordinating the wireless network resources.

Question 12: What distinguishes the RIB from the FIB?

The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. (Correct answer)
The FIB includes many routes to a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.
The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.
The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route.

Correct answer: The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

The RIB (Routing Information Base) holds all learned routes and is used to build the network topology and routing table, while the FIB (Forwarding Information Base) is the optimized list of best routes used for fast packet forwarding. The other options reverse these roles or misstate which table holds the best route.

Question 13: In the Cisco SD-Access architecture, what technology is used to offer Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks?

VPN routing/forwarding
underlay network
easy virtual network
overlay network (Correct answer)

Correct answer: overlay network

In the Cisco SD-Access (Software-Defined Access) architecture, the technology used to offer Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks is the "overlay network." An overlay network is a virtual network that is built on top of the physical network infrastructure. It allows the creation of logical network segments that are independent of the underlying physical network topology. In the context of Cisco SD-Access, the overlay network is a fundamental concept that enables the implementation of virtual networks to provide segmentation, policy enforcement, and mobility for different user groups and devices.

Question 14: What distinguishes process switching from CEF?

Process switching is faster than CEF.
CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.
CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.
CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.

CEF uses the pre-built FIB and adjacency table to forward packets quickly, whereas process switching punts each packet to the CPU for individual lookup. This makes CEF faster and less CPU-intensive than process switching, so the options claiming the opposite are incorrect.

Question 15: What are the two factors to take into account while utilizing SSO as a network redundancy feature? (Select two.)

the multicast state is preserved during switchover
both supervisors must be configured separately
requires synchronization between supervisors in order to guarantee continuous connectivity (Correct answer)
must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 3 operations (Correct answer)
must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 2 operations

Correct answer: requires synchronization between supervisors in order to guarantee continuous connectivity

SSO requires synchronization between the active and standby supervisors so the standby has the current state and can guarantee continuous connectivity during switchover. The other statements are false—supervisors are not configured separately, multicast state is not preserved by SSO alone, and NSF (not SSO) supports uninterrupted Layer 3 forwarding.

Question 16: What control plane protocol is utilized to map and resolve endpoints in a Cisco SD-Access fabric?

DHCP
VXLAN
SXP
LISP (Correct answer)

Correct answer: LISP

In a Cisco SD-Access (Software-Defined Access) fabric, the control plane protocol utilized to map and resolve endpoints is "LISP" (Locator/ID Separation Protocol). LISP is a key component of Cisco SD-Access, and it plays a crucial role in providing efficient endpoint identification, segmentation, and mobility within the fabric. LISP allows for the separation of the endpoint identifier (ID) from its location (locator), which helps in achieving scalable and flexible network designs.

Free Cisco ENCOR 350-401 MCQ Question and Answers

What are the primary advantages of hosting an application on the cloud?