FREE Certified Professional Coder MCQ Questions and Answers
Which anesthesia code should be used when performing intravertebral procedures on the spine or spinal cord, including lumbar percutaneous image-guided neuromodulation or kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty?
CPT code 01938 denotes anesthesia for lumbar or sacral spine or spinal cord percutaneous image-guided injection, drainage, or aspiration procedures. The scenario for either an intravertebral procedure or a neuromodulation. 1938 is a non-starter. Anesthesia is used during lumbar or sacral neurolytic agent destruction procedures using percutaneous image guidance, according to CPT code 01940. 1940 can be taken out. Code CPT 01941 Anesthesia for cervical or thoracic intravertebral surgeries, including kyphoplasty and vertebroplasty, as well as percutaneous image-guided neuromodulation. The scenario mentions that the lumbar region was the target of the procedure. One can get rid of 1941. 1942 is the correct response.
How do you describe Arthrodesis, posterior or posterolateral approach, single interspace, each additional interspace?
Access each code in the CPT codebook individually. Arthrodesis, posterior or posterolateral method, one interspace is represented by the number 22614: each additional interspace (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure). Arthrodesis, posterior or posterolateral method, single interspace; lumbar is represented by 22612. (with lateral transverse technique, when performed). Choose neither AÂ nor B. A bilateral procedure is symbolized by modifier 50. To highlight the operations carried out on both sides, Modifier 50 is included (Right and left). Modifier 50 does not apply in this situation since arthrodesis is either posterior or posterolateral. Delete the CÂ option. The right response is D.
Which of the following is an observation Z code category for a medical observation encounter for suspected diseases and conditions that have been ruled out?
The following are the observation Z code categories:
-The right response is Z03, which stands for encounter for medical observation for conditions that are suspected but ruled out.
– Z04 encounter for the purpose of examination and observation for another reason with the exception of Z04.9, an encounter for the purpose of examination and observation. A suspected disease is the cause, so answer D is incorrect.
– Z05 Encounter for newborn observation and evaluation for suspected diseases and conditions ruled out. A newborn was not mentioned in the scenario, hence answer B is wrong.
-Z02 is not a Z code for an observation, so CÂ is wrong.
All workers must submit to random drug testing in order to remain employed by an employer. The employer demands that the drug testing company conduct a drug test to detect the illegal use of seven analytes.
Which CPT is applicable?
Drug(s) or substance(s), definitive, qualitative or quantitative, not else defined; 1-3 are represented by the CPT code 80375. In this instance, seven analytes were subject to drug screening. Option C can be taken away. Drug(s) or substance(s), definitive, qualitative or quantitative, not else defined; 4-6 is represented by CPT code 80376. Option A can be ruled out. For a service that may be identified independently, use modifier 25. Option BÂ can be ruled out. The right response is D.
A medical professional is dealing with a patient who requires an extracranial facial nerve suture. The procedure, however, must be done with the help of an operating microscope.
How should the doctor document this operation?
Extracranial suture of the facial nerve is represented by CPT code 64864. Microsurgical procedures, requiring a surgical microscope and categorized under CPT code 69990. In addition to the code for the primary procedure, the CPT code 69990 must be included separately. Nerve suture; secondary or delayed suture; CPT code 64872. Option AÂ can be ruled out. 64864 is the main procedure code. The right response is C.
A 10-year-old boy with two dark lesions visits his family doctor. The doctor decides the patient requires a punch biopsy.
What CPT code ought the provider enter?
A tangential biopsy of the skin with a single lesion is denoted by the CPT code 11102 (e.g., shaving, scooping, saucerizing, curette). It is possible to report 11102 twice in order to correctly code for multiple lesions. Additionally, the type of biopsy is a punch biopsy rather than a tangential biopsy. Choices 11102 and 11102 - 59 can be eliminated as a result. Punch biopsy of skin with simple closure when necessary; one lesion is denoted by CPT code 11104. The CPT codebook's notes in this section advise reporting 11105 separately in addition to coding for the primary procedure. As a result, we can rule out 11104 and 11104. The right responses are 11104 and 11105.
In the event that a 5-year-old presents to the emergency room and needs sedation. The patient can breathe on his or her own. The doctor advises sedating the patient for 30 minutes.
How are CPT codes to be reported?
With an initial 15 minutes of intraservice time and a patient age of 5 or older, the CPT code 99156 denotes moderate sedation services rendered by a doctor or other qualified health care professional other than the doctor or other qualified health care professional performing the diagnostic or therapeutic service that the sedation supports. For every additional 15 minutes of intraservice time, CPT code 99157 denotes moderate sedation services rendered by a physician or other qualified healthcare professional other than the one who is performing the diagnostic or therapeutic procedure that the sedation supports. The patient was given sedation by the doctor for 30 minutes. For an additional 15 minutes, CPT code 99157 may be reported and listed separately from the code for primary service. 99157 and 99157 are both erasable. With an initial 15 minutes of intraservice time and a patient younger than five years old, the CPT code 97155 denotes moderate sedation services rendered by a doctor or other qualified health care professional other than the one who performs the diagnostic or therapeutic service that the sedation supports. Five years old is the patient. 99155 and 99157 are erasable. The right responses are 99156 and 99157.
When doing percutaneous image-guided neuromodulation or intravertebral treatments (e.g., kyphoplasty, vertebroplasty) on the spine or spinal cord; lumbar, which anesthetic code is reported?
The anesthetic for lumbar or sacral percutaneous image-guided injection, drainage, or aspiration procedures on the spine or spinal cord is represented by the CPT code 01938. The scenario for either an intravertebral operation or a neuromodulation. Choice BÂ can be taken off the list. Anesthesia is used during lumbar or sacral neurolytic agent destruction treatments using percutaneous imaging guidance, according to CPT code 01940. Option A can be ruled out. Code CPT 01941 Anesthesia for cervical or thoracic intravertebral surgeries, including kyphoplasty and vertebroplasty, as well as percutaneous image-guided neuromodulation. The surgery was performed in the lumbar region, according to the scenario. Option D can be ruled out. The right response is C.
A patient has been identified as having an unidentified malignant neoplasm of the oropharynx, and the doctor advises that the patient received radiation therapy for 5 sessions.
Which CPT and ICD-10 codes should be used?
Radiation treatment delivery, either superficially or ortho voltage, is indicated by the CPT code 77401. Radiation treatment management, 5 treatments is represented by CPT code 77427. Simple radiation treatment delivery is represented by CPT code 77402. You can cross out options 77401 and C10.8 and 77402 and C10.9. Malignant neoplasm of overlapping sites of the oropharynx is represented by ICD-10 code C10.8. There are no overlapping sires mentioned in the case. Choices C10.8 and 77427 can both be taken out. The malignant neoplasm of the oropharynx is represented by ICD-10 code C10.9, so the proper answer is 77427 and C10.
Which modifier can a physician use when giving a service in a hospital that is both technical and professional?
The CPT code book's Appendix A contains modifiers. When a service is done in the hospital, it has a technical and professional component. For the professional part, the doctor may only use modifier 26.
To divert or create an artificial passage is what this term means:
An opening or a small conduit that allows fluid to travel from one area of the body to another is referred to as a shunt. To drain cerebrospinal fluid and stop it from building up, it can be surgically implanted in the brain or spine.
The outermost layer of the eyeball is referred to by this term:
The sclera is the name for the eyeball's outermost layer. It is the strong, protective outer layer of the eyeball, covering four-fifths of the eyeball with dense fibrous tissue and serving as attachment points for the muscles that move the eye.
Interprofessional telephone/Internet/electronic health record examination and management offered by a consultative physician, including a verbal and written report to the patient's treating/requesting physician or other qualified health care professional; 11–20 minutes of medical consultative conversation and review.
Which scenario calls for the use of 99447?
The CPT code 99447 applies to patients who may be new or established patients with a new condition or exacerbation of a current problem in the opinion of the consulting physician; however, the consultant must not have seen the patient during the preceding 14 days. Choice D is the right response because CPT codes can be used to both new and current patients.
A patient seeks sialodochoplasty, a primary or simple plastic surgery procedure, at her doctor's office. She does not require anesthesia for the procedure, the doctor decides.
What CPT code ought to be entered?
Modifiers that indicate a person's physical status are denoted by the letter "P" and a single digit from 1-6. Choices 42500 - P1 and 42500 - P2 can be ruled out because a physical status modifier follows every anesthesia procedure. Plastic repair of the salivary duct, also known as sialodochoplasty, is denoted by the CPT code 42500. Answer option 42500 is the right choice.
Urinary incontinence in 61-year-old male results in uncontrollable leakage. The patient underwent a procedure to address this problem three months ago. The surgeon stitched the incision shut by placing a sling across the muscles that surround the urethra. To have the sling taken off, the patient returns.
What CPT code ought to be entered?
Male urinary incontinence sling removal or revision is represented by CPT code 53442. (eg, fascia or synthetic). The CPT code 53431 can be dropped because it denotes urethroplasty with tubularization of the lower bladder and/or posterior urethra for incontinence (e.g., Tenago, Leadbetter procedure). Open your CPT codebook and turn to Appendix A. Multiple procedures are represented by modifier 51. Eliminate 53442 - 51 because the scenario does mention there were multiple procedures. A unique procedural service is represented by modifier 59. Take away 53442-59. The proper answer is 53442.
What code should a doctor enter if a Bronchoplasty is combined with graft repair, excision stenosis, and anastomosis during this procedure?
Bronchoplasty; excision stenosis and anastomosis is represented by the CPT code 31775. Since graft repair alone is a Bronchoplasty, CPT codes 31770 and 31775 are both incorrect. A direct laryngoscopy for aspiration, with or without tracheoscopy, is denoted by the CPT code 31515. Since this is untrue, we can rule out 31515 and 31775. 31775 is the right response.