Free Certified Coding Associate MCQ Questions and Answers — Questions and Answers

Question 1: An obstetrician records a 34-year-old woman as being in status G2P2 in the delivery room before successfully delivering a healthy son. What does G2P2 represent?

Two previous pregnancies, two previous cesarean deliveries
Two years since last pregnancy, second of two total pregnancies
Two previous pregnancies, two previous live births (Correct answer)
Two previous pregnancies, two previous vaginal deliveries

Correct answer: Two previous pregnancies, two previous live births

In obstetrics, the 'G' in G_P_ stands for Gravida, representing the total number of pregnancies a woman has had, regardless of outcome. The 'P' stands for Para, indicating the number of pregnancies that have resulted in a live birth. Therefore, G2P2 means the woman has been pregnant twice and has had two previous live births.

Question 2: Which of these patient evaluation elements DOES NOT belong with the other two, according to your understanding of the three foundations of E/M services (history, exam, and medical decision-making)?

History of present illness
Level of risk (Correct answer)
Chief complaint
Review of systems

Correct answer: Level of risk

The three foundational components of Evaluation and Management (E/M) services are history, examination, and medical decision-making (MDM). The history component includes the chief complaint, history of present illness, and review of systems. The 'Level of risk' is a key element *within* the medical decision-making component, not a separate foundational component itself.

Question 3: Which ICD-10 category would you look in to find the right code for a routine adult patient visit to their family doctor?

Category R
Category A
Category Z (Correct answer)
Category K

Correct answer: Category Z

In ICD-10-CM, Category Z codes are used for 'Factors influencing health status and contact with health services.' This category includes codes for encounters for routine examinations, screenings, vaccinations, and other non-illness-related visits. A routine adult patient visit to their family doctor, without a specific complaint or diagnosis, would typically be coded with a Z code.

Question 4: A 43-year-old man who was involved in an automobile accident is taken by emergency personnel to the hospital with life-threatening injuries. He is promptly given the go-ahead for critical care services upon arrival. The doctor providing care spends 105 minutes that day stabilizing and treating the patient. Choose the suitable E/M code or codes for this service.

99291, 99292
99283
99285
99291, 99292×2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 99291, 99292×2

Critical care services are coded based on the total time spent. Code 99291 is used for the first 30-74 minutes of critical care. For each additional 30 minutes beyond the initial 74 minutes, code 99292 is reported. If the total time spent was 135 minutes (rather than the stated 105 minutes, which would be 99291, 99292), this would account for the initial 74 minutes (99291) plus two additional 30-minute increments (135 - 74 = 61 minutes, which covers two units of 99292).

Question 5: For immediate treatment of a flare-up of end-stage renal illness, Mr. Jackson was admitted as an inpatient. His personal doctor visits the hospital the day after his admission for a checkup and a chart review. For his visit to the doctor, choose the appropriate E/M code series.

Subsequent hospital care (99231–99233) (Correct answer)
Initial observation care (99218–99220)
Office or other outpatient services (99201–99215)
Initial hospital care (99221–99223)

Correct answer: Subsequent hospital care (99231–99233)

This is a unique situation where the hospital where the patient received care takes precedence over the individual who provided that therapy when choosing an E/M code (his personal physician). With that knowledge, office or outpatient services are immediately eliminated since in-hospital therapy is seen as inpatient care and because the doctor in question is not visiting the patient at his own office (as an outpatient). This disqualifies initial observation care because the patient was not formally designated as being under observation status. The initial hospital care E/M service standards specifically say that these codes "are intended to report the first hospital inpatient visit with the patient by the admitting physician [AI]," therefore the correct response is subsequent hospital care (CPT 16). The E/M series after hospital care should be reviewed for the proper E/M code because it is obvious that this is not applicable to the second day of Mr. Jackson's treatment.

Question 6: Which of the following claims about the proper classification of hospital discharge services is TRUE?

Code 99239 is used only for discharge services that also include a final examination as part of the discharge procedure.
A discharge service of 30 minutes is coded 99239.
When someone is discharged from inpatient services on the same date as admission, the coder consults E/M series 99234–99236. (Correct answer)
Codes 99238 and 99239 can be used for patients being discharged from nursing facility care.

Correct answer: When someone is discharged from inpatient services on the same date as admission, the coder consults E/M series 99234–99236.

CPT codes 99234-99236 are specifically designated for 'Observation or Inpatient Hospital Care, Including Admission and Discharge Services.' These codes are used when a patient is admitted to observation status or as an inpatient and then discharged on the *same calendar date*. This combines the admission and discharge services into a single code based on the total time and complexity of the encounter.

Question 7: Jake's right leg is an inch and a quarter shorter than the left. His podiatrist places a special order for an orthotic shoe insert to improve his comfort while walking. What handbook would provide the code for an orthotic insert?

CPT
ICD-10-CM
OIG
HCPCS-II (Correct answer)

Correct answer: HCPCS-II

HCPCS Level II codes are used for reporting medical supplies, durable medical equipment (DME), prosthetics, orthotics, and other non-physician services. An orthotic shoe insert falls under the category of orthotics or durable medical equipment, which are specifically coded using the HCPCS Level II system. CPT codes are for procedures, and ICD-10-CM codes are for diagnoses.

Question 8: What does "HIPAA" stands for?

Health Insurance and Privacy Act
Health Information Processing and Administration Act
Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

HIPAA stands for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Enacted in 1996, this federal law primarily aims to protect patient health information, improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the healthcare system, and ensure health insurance portability for workers. It sets national standards for electronic healthcare transactions and data privacy.

Question 9: Which of the following is an example of a healthcare code set used for identifying medical supplies and non-physician services?

CPT
ICD-10-PCS
ICD-10-CM
HCPCS Level II (Correct answer)

Correct answer: HCPCS Level II

HCPCS Level II codes are specifically designed to identify medical supplies, durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and non-physician services like ambulance services. Unlike CPT codes which describe physician procedures, or ICD-10 codes which describe diagnoses and inpatient procedures, HCPCS Level II fills the gap for these other essential healthcare items and services.

Question 10: What does "E/M" stand for in medical coding?

evaluation and Management
Equipment and Medication
Emergency and Maintenance
Examination and Manipulation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Examination and Manipulation

In medical coding, E/M stands for Evaluation and Management. E/M codes are a category within the CPT code set used to report physician services for assessing and managing a patient's health condition. These codes are crucial for billing office visits, hospital visits, consultations, and other encounters where a physician evaluates a patient's problem and determines a course of action.

Question 11: Which of the following services would be coded using CPT codes?

Patient's diagnosis of diabetes
A surgical procedure to remove an appendix (Correct answer)
A medical device used to monitor heart rate
A prescription medication for pain relief

Correct answer: A surgical procedure to remove an appendix

CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) codes are used to describe medical, surgical, and diagnostic procedures and services performed by physicians and other healthcare providers. A surgical procedure, such as an appendectomy, is a prime example of a service that would be coded using CPT. Diagnoses are coded with ICD-10-CM, and medical devices/supplies with HCPCS Level II.

Question 12: Which of the following is NOT typically coded using ICD-10-PCS codes?

Open-heart surgery
Insertion of a pacemaker
Diagnosis of a respiratory infection (Correct answer)
Hip replacement surgery

Correct answer: Diagnosis of a respiratory infection

ICD-10-PCS (Procedure Coding System) codes are specifically used for *inpatient hospital procedures*. Diagnoses, such as a respiratory infection, are coded using ICD-10-CM (Clinical Modification) codes. Surgical procedures like open-heart surgery, pacemaker insertion, and hip replacement, when performed in an inpatient setting, would be coded with ICD-10-PCS.

Question 13: Which of the following organizations primarily focuses on medical billing and coding professionals?

AMA
WHO
AHIMA (Correct answer)
CDC

Correct answer: AHIMA

The American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA) is a professional organization that primarily focuses on health information management (HIM) professionals, which includes medical coders and billers. AHIMA provides education, certifications (like CCA, CCS, RHIA, RHIT), and advocacy for the HIM profession, distinguishing it from organizations like AMA (physicians), WHO (global health), or CDC (public health).

Question 14: Which of the following statements is true about CCA certification requirements?

A bachelor's degree is mandatory.
No educational requirement is necessary.
A certain amount of work experience is required. (Correct answer)
Only physicians can apply.

Correct answer: A certain amount of work experience is required.

While not the only path, having a certain amount of work experience in coding (typically two years) is one of the eligibility requirements for the Certified Coding Associate (CCA) certification. Other pathways include holding a high school diploma or completing an AHIMA-approved coding program. This flexibility allows individuals with practical experience to also qualify for the exam.

Question 15: What is the purpose of the CCA certification exam?

To test clinical skills
To assess coding knowledge and skills (Correct answer)
To evaluate surgical techniques
To measure administrative abilities

Correct answer: To assess coding knowledge and skills

The primary purpose of the CCA certification exam is to evaluate an individual's fundamental knowledge and practical skills in medical coding. It tests their ability to accurately assign codes for diagnoses and procedures, understand coding guidelines, and apply healthcare regulations. This ensures that certified individuals possess the basic competence required for entry-level coding positions.

Free Certified Coding Associate MCQ Questions and Answers

An obstetrician records a 34-year-old woman as being in status G2P2 in the delivery room before successfully delivering a healthy son.
What does G2P2 represent?