FREE American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology Questions and Answers

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What is the mortality rate of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome if left untreated?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is an uncommon but potentially fatal illness that can develop as a side effect of antipsychotic drugs. The mortality risk of untreated NMS is believed to be about 20%. If NMS is not treated, serious consequences like organ failure and even death may result.

What condition is not usually associated with Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

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Explanation:
Adverse reactions to antipsychotic drugs can result in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal illness. Lead pipe rigidity autonomic instability, high fever, and dysphagia are some of the symptoms that define it. However, leukopenia, which refers to a decrease in white blood cell count, is not typically seen in NMS.

On average, how long does the active phase of schizophrenia last?

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Explanation:
A month is the minimum duration required for the active phase of schizophrenia. This indicates that to receive a diagnosis of schizophrenia, a patient must have negative symptoms, disorganized speech or behavior, delusions, or hallucinations for a minimum of one month. It is crucial to remember that this is the lowest amount of time—the active period of schizophrenia typically lasts more than a month.

Which receptors are inhibited by antipsychotics of the second generation?

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Explanation:
D2 and 5H2 receptors are antagonistic to second-generation antipsychotics. Dopamine receptors called D2 receptors are antagonistic to one another, which helps lessen psychotic symptoms. Antagonizing 5H2 receptors, which are serotonin receptors, might elevate mood and lessen anxiety.

In schizophrenia, which of the following is the best prognostic sign?

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Explanation:
When it comes to schizophrenia, the initial response to medicine is seen to be the strongest prognostic indicator since it suggests that the patient will likely respond well to therapy and will fare better in the long run.

Which of the following DOES NOT indicate that a person has positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

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Explanation:
Positive symptoms of schizophrenia do not include avolition. When abnormal behavior or actions occur, that are not usually observed in healthy people, they are referred to as positive symptoms.

Which of these DOES NOT correspond to a schizophrenia subtype?

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Explanation:
As a subtype of schizophrenia, the Cataleptic Type is not officially recognized. Paranoid, Residual, Undifferentiated, and Disorganized are some of the subtypes of schizophrenia.

How common is schizophrenia in the general population?

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Explanation:
It is believed that 0.5 to 1.5% of the general population suffers from schizophrenia. This indicates that between 0.5 and 1.5 out of every 100 members of the general public have a schizophrenia diagnosis.

Which combination of antipsychotics causes the most weight gain?

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Explanation:
The combination of antipsychotics that is most linked to weight gain is clozapine and olanzapine. Antipsychotic drugs frequently cause weight gain as a side effect, yet research indicates that clozapine and olanzapine are more likely than other antipsychotics to cause weight gain.

Which percentage of schizophreniform disorders patients progress to schizoaffective or schizophrenia?

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Explanation:
Schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder emerges in 66% of people with schizophreniform disease. This indicates that most people with schizophreniform disorder eventually develop a more severe and long-lasting form of psychosis.

Which antipsychotic medication is linked to retinal pigmentation?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Retinal pigmentation is linked to Thioridazine. The term ""retinal pigmentation"" describes the discoloration or darkening of the retina, the light-sensitive tissue located in the rear of the eye.

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