Question 1: The head injury standard states that we should hyperventilate an adult, child, or newborn at what rate if ETCO2 is not available.

• selective means it has effects only seen on a certain receptor where non-selective means it has effects on more then one receptor
• adult 20 breaths/min, child 25 breaths/min , infant 30 breaths/min (Correct answer)
• used to treat hypertension, arrhythmia's, angina, CHF, glaucoma
• pain, pallor, pulse, paresis, paralysis, parenthesia, anesthesia

Correct answer: adult 20 breaths/min, child 25 breaths/min , infant 30 breaths/min

When ETCO2 monitoring is unavailable, the head injury standard for hyperventilation rates are 20 breaths/min for an adult, 25 breaths/min for a child, and 30 breaths/min for an infant, reflecting the higher baseline respiratory rates of younger patients. The other options describe receptor selectivity, beta-blocker uses, and the 6 Ps of compartment syndrome.

Question 2: How many lumbar vertebrae are there in a human?

• glucagon
• 5 (Correct answer)
• brandykinesia, trembling, impaired balance, stiffness in the limbs
• 5ml

Correct answer: 5

The human lumbar spine has 5 vertebrae (L1-L5), located in the lower back. The other options are a hormone (glucagon), Parkinson's symptoms, and a volume measurement, none of which answer an anatomical count.

Question 3: What is myasthenia gravis, and how does it come about?

• a) there's a mandatory patch point <br> b) uncertainty about the appropriateness of a medical directive <br> c) when a RBH introduces another patch point <br> d) situations that fall outside the protocol but the paramedic believes the patient will benefit from medical direction within the paramedics scope of practice
• It is an antihistamine and anticholinergic that works by inhibiting histamine H1 which reverses the effects of histamine release and pass the blood brain barrier causing sedative effects
• Can cause a brief loss of consciousness without losing postural tone with isolated motor tics such as lip smacking or eye blinking
• An chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disorder that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles caused by a defect in nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction; the body attacks the receptors for acetylcholine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disorder that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles caused by a defect in nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction; the body attacks the receptors for acetylcholine

Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disorder causing skeletal muscle weakness because the body produces antibodies that attack acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, impairing nerve-to-muscle signal transmission. This is why weakness worsens with activity. The other options describe patch-point situations, antihistamine action, and absence/focal seizures.

Question 4: What is stimulated by parasympathetic activity?

• pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension
• 1. the car strikes the object <br> 2. person strikes the inside of the car <br> 3. internal organs strike the inside of the body
• pupil constriction, increased gastric mobility, bradycardia, increased in secretion , bronco-constriction (Correct answer)
• They are canals inside bone where they supply blood and nerve supply to surrounding bone osteocytes

Correct answer: pupil constriction, increased gastric mobility, bradycardia, increased in secretion , bronco-constriction

Parasympathetic ('rest and digest') activity stimulates pupil constriction, increased gastric motility, bradycardia (slowed heart rate), increased glandular secretions, and bronchoconstriction. These conserve energy and promote digestion. The other options describe opioid toxidrome, the three collisions of trauma, and bone canals.

Question 5: Where does adult haematopoiesis take place?

• circumflex and left anterior descending
• endorphins and enkephalins
• pelvis, vertebral column, and cranium (Correct answer)
• Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, coronary sinus

Correct answer: pelvis, vertebral column, and cranium

In adults, hematopoiesis (blood cell formation) occurs in the red bone marrow of the axial skeleton, primarily the pelvis, vertebral column, and cranium (along with the sternum and ribs). After childhood, marrow in the long bones becomes largely fatty and inactive. The other options list coronary arteries, opioid peptides, and structures emptying into the right atrium.

Question 6: Where do nociceptors tend to be more prevalent?

• hands and arms
• fingers and toes (Correct answer)
• head and torso
• feet and legs

Correct answer: fingers and toes

Nociceptors (pain receptors) are most densely concentrated in the fingers and toes, making these extremities highly sensitive to painful stimuli. This dense innervation protects the most exposed and functionally important parts of the limbs. The other body regions listed have lower nociceptor density by comparison.

Question 7: What consequences might hypokalemia cause?

• first starts with fever, dry coughing, sneezing, red watery eyes then within a 2 week period dry cough becomes wet and brings up thick stringy mucus
• more serious then type 1 and is caused by the gathering of nitrogen bubbles in the CNS , lungs, or heart
• cardiac arrhythmia's, muscle cramping and weakness, extreme thirst, frequent urination (Correct answer)
• vomiting, seizures, heart arrhythmia, seeing halos around objects, dilated pupils

Correct answer: cardiac arrhythmia's, muscle cramping and weakness, extreme thirst, frequent urination

Hypokalemia (low potassium) disrupts the electrical activity needed for muscle and nerve function, causing cardiac arrhythmias, muscle cramping and weakness, and—through its effect on the kidneys—extreme thirst and frequent urination. The other options describe pertussis, Type 2 decompression sickness, and digoxin toxicity.

Question 8: What are optimum conditions that promote pathogens to grow?

• lower body
• pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension
• airborne, skin contact, ingestion, contact with fluids
• pH level, temperature, food, water (Correct answer)

Correct answer: pH level, temperature, food, water

Pathogens grow best when key environmental conditions are met—an appropriate pH level, temperature, food (nutrients), and water (moisture)—the core factors captured by the FATTOM acronym. The other options describe a body region, opioid toxidrome, and routes of disease transmission rather than growth conditions.

Question 9: What qualifies as a green triage level?

• a) burns without airway issues <br> b) major/multiple bone or joint injuries <br> c) back injuries without spinal cord damage
• located on the blood vessels it causes constriction when stimulated
• they are released from the adrenal medulla
• minor injuries and patient is usually is ambulatory (Correct answer)

Correct answer: minor injuries and patient is usually is ambulatory

A green triage level designates patients with minor injuries who are usually ambulatory ('walking wounded') and can safely wait for treatment without immediate threat to life or limb. The other options describe yellow/urgent-category injuries, adrenergic receptor action, and the source of catecholamines.

Question 10: What do the lungs' irritant receptors do?

• when blood does not profuse the lung ( right to left shunt in the heart causing venous blood to enter from the right ventricle to the left ventricle bypassing the lungs)
• Protein buffering, Bicarbonate buffering, and Physiological buffering
• It is a mix of diphenhydramine combined with 8-chlorotheophylline and is taken for motion sickness as well as nausea and vomiting
• within the epithelial cells these cells become stimulated to cause bronchial constriction when they sense nitrogenous substances like smoke, cold air, dust (Correct answer)

Correct answer: within the epithelial cells these cells become stimulated to cause bronchial constriction when they sense nitrogenous substances like smoke, cold air, dust

Irritant receptors located within the airway epithelial cells are stimulated by noxious substances such as smoke, cold air, and dust, triggering reflex bronchial constriction to protect the lungs from harmful inhalants. The other options describe a right-to-left shunt, blood buffering systems, and the drug dimenhydrinate.

Question 11: Direct gene activation: what is it?

• it is a regular blood test that tests the levels of prothrombin to make sure the levels are at the therapeutic level for people on anticoagulant therapy
• more serious then type 1 and is caused by the gathering of nitrogen bubbles in the CNS , lungs, or heart
• it is a NSIAD that works as a non-selective COX inhibitor inhibiting prostaglandins thereby reducing pain, fever, and inflammation
• occurs with steroid hormones were they have an effect on a specific target organ and are freely movable into the cell due to the lipid layer

Direct gene activation occurs with steroid hormones, which are lipid-soluble and pass freely through the cell membrane to bind intracellular receptors in their specific target organ, directly influencing gene transcription without a second messenger. The other options describe an INR/prothrombin test, Type 2 decompression sickness, and the NSAID mechanism.